the nurse is planning a health fair for young adults which action is most important for the nurse to implement
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet

1. The nurse is planning a health fair for young adults. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Offering blood pressure screening and monitoring is crucial for young adults as it helps in the early detection and management of hypertension, a condition that often goes unnoticed. High blood pressure can lead to serious health issues if left untreated. While education on smoking cessation, safe sex practices, healthy diet, and exercise are important aspects of overall health promotion, blood pressure screening takes precedence due to its immediate impact on health and the prevention of potential complications.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for antibiotic treatment of a leg ulcer. Which signs and symptoms, indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? (Select one that doesn't apply.)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Presence of uremic frost.' Increased heart rate, visual disturbances, and decreased mentation are all signs and symptoms indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). Uremic frost, however, is not associated with HHNS but is a clinical finding seen in severe cases of chronic kidney disease. Therefore, the nurse should report the presence of uremic frost to the healthcare provider as a separate concern from HHNS.

3. A client who had an intraosseous (IO) cannula placed by the healthcare provider for emergent fluid resuscitation is complaining of severe pain and numbness below the IO site. The skin around the site is pale and edematous. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of severe pain, numbness, pale skin, and edema below the IO site raise concerns for complications like compartment syndrome or extravasation. The priority action for the nurse is to discontinue the IO infusion to prevent further harm to the client. Administering an analgesic via the IO site or elevating the extremity with the IO site may delay addressing the potential serious complications. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, the immediate action to ensure client safety is to stop the infusion.

4. A client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF) has a 24-hour urine output of 400 ml. How much oral intake should the nurse allow this client to have during the next 24 hours?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), the goal is to prevent fluid overload. Since the client has a low urine output of 400 ml in 24 hours, limiting oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml is appropriate. Encouraging unrestricted oral fluids (Choice A) can exacerbate fluid overload. Decreasing oral intake to 200 ml (Choice B) would be too restrictive and may lead to dehydration. Allowing the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake (Choice C) would not account for other sources of fluid intake and output, potentially resulting in fluid imbalance.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central venous catheter. Which assessment finding indicates a complication related to the TPN?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is concerning as it indicates fluid retention, a potential complication of TPN leading to fluid overload. Elevated blood glucose levels (Choice A) are expected in TPN, serum potassium levels (Choice B) are within the normal range, and a white blood cell count (Choice D) of 7000/mm3 is also normal. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it suggests a complication related to TPN.

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