Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure is being discharged with a prescription for erythropoietin (Epogen). Which statement indicates that the client understands the action of this medication?

• A. It helps my body make red blood cells
• B. It helps prevent infections
• C. It helps my kidneys excrete excess fluid
• D. It helps me breathe easier

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It helps my body make red blood cells.' Erythropoietin is a medication that stimulates the production of red blood cells in the body. Clients with chronic renal failure often develop anemia due to decreased erythropoietin production by the kidneys. This medication helps address that issue by increasing red blood cell production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin does not prevent infections, help kidneys excrete excess fluid, or assist with breathing; its primary action is to boost red blood cell production.

2. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
• B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
• C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

3. A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is placed on drug therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). The client should be instructed to report which effect(s) of the medication to the healthcare provider?

• A. Reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids
• B. Bloody or blood-tinged urine
• C. Blurring of vision
• D. Weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a week

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rifampin (Rifadin) commonly causes a reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine, sweat, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect but should be reported to the healthcare provider for monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with rifampin therapy. Bloody or blood-tinged urine may indicate other issues such as urinary tract infection or kidney problems, blurring of vision may suggest eye problems, and significant weight gain could be related to various health conditions unrelated to rifampin.

4. The nurse observes a client in a wheelchair with a vest restraint in place. What nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Assess the need for continued restraint
• B. Check the client for urinary incontinence
• C. Determine skin integrity under the vest
• D. Perform range-of-motion exercises on extremities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the need for continued restraint. This is the most important nursing intervention as it ensures the client's safety and autonomy. Checking for urinary incontinence (Choice B) may be important but is not the priority in this situation. Determining skin integrity under the vest (Choice C) is essential but not as crucial as assessing the need for continued restraint. Performing range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) is important for client mobility but not the priority when a restraint is in place.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days post-op following an abdominal surgery. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Administer pain medication
• D. Cover the wound with an abdominal binder

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the priority action for the nurse is to apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound. This helps prevent infection and keeps the wound moist, which is crucial in promoting healing and preventing further complications. Option B, notifying the healthcare provider, is important but should come after addressing the wound. Administering pain medication (Option C) may be necessary but is not the first action to take in this emergency situation. Covering the wound with an abdominal binder (Option D) is not appropriate and may cause further harm by applying pressure to the protruding bowel.

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