HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with Alzheimer's disease is exhibiting signs of agitation and aggression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Reassure the client and provide emotional support.
- B. Redirect the client to a quiet activity.
- C. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam.
- D. Apply soft restraints as needed to prevent harm.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to redirect the client to a quiet activity. This intervention helps reduce agitation and aggression in clients with Alzheimer's disease by providing a distraction and promoting a calming environment. Reassuring the client and providing emotional support (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice C) should not be the first intervention due to the risk of adverse effects and should only be considered if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective. Applying restraints (Choice D) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for the client's safety as it can lead to further distress and is not the initial priority intervention.
2. A client presents to the clinic with concerns about her left breast. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report?
- A. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses.
- B. A slight asymmetry of the breasts.
- C. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the skin.
- D. Bloody discharge from the nipple.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the skin is concerning for malignancy, such as breast cancer, and should be reported immediately for further evaluation. This finding is more suspicious compared to multiple firm, round, freely movable masses (choice A), which could be benign breast lumps. A slight asymmetry of the breasts (choice B) is a common finding and not as alarming as a fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the skin. Bloody discharge from the nipple (choice D) can be suggestive of other conditions like intraductal papilloma but is not as urgent as the finding described in choice C.
3. An unresponsive male victim of a diving accident is brought to the emergency department where immediate surgery is required to save his life. No family members are available. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Ask the friend to sign an informed consent.
- B. Notify the unit manager that a court order is needed.
- C. Continue providing life support until a guardian is found.
- D. Proceed with surgery preparation without consent.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In emergency situations where immediate surgery is required to save a patient's life and no family members are available, consent can be waived to proceed with necessary interventions. The priority in this scenario is to proceed with surgery preparation without waiting for consent, as any delay could jeopardize the patient's life. Asking the friend to sign informed consent or notifying the unit manager for a court order would cause unnecessary delays, which are not advisable in this critical situation. Continuing life support until a guardian is found is not the most appropriate action when immediate surgical intervention is necessary.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with a traumatic brain injury who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which assessment finding indicates that the client may be experiencing increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
- A. Client becomes increasingly lethargic
- B. Client's respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute
- C. Client responds to verbal stimuli
- D. Client's pupils are equal and reactive
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increased lethargy is a sign of worsening intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening in clients with brain injuries. As ICP rises, it can lead to decreased level of consciousness, such as lethargy or even coma. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of increased ICP. A normal respiratory rate, response to verbal stimuli, and equal reactive pupils do not specifically point towards increased intracranial pressure.
5. During an assessment of a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse is most likely to hear which of the following upon auscultation of the heart?
- A. S3 ventricular gallop
- B. Apical click
- C. Systolic murmur
- D. Split S2
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: An S3 ventricular gallop is an abnormal heart sound commonly heard in clients with congestive heart failure. This sound is indicative of fluid overload or volume expansion in the ventricles, which is often present in heart failure. <br> Incorrect Answers: <br> B: An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. <br> C: A systolic murmur may be heard in various cardiac conditions but is not specific to congestive heart failure. <br> D: A split S2 refers to a normal heart sound caused by the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves at slightly different times during inspiration, not directly related to congestive heart failure.
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