Nursing Elites

1. A client with Alzheimer's disease is exhibiting signs of agitation and aggression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Reassure the client and provide emotional support.
• B. Redirect the client to a quiet activity.
• C. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam.
• D. Apply soft restraints as needed to prevent harm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to redirect the client to a quiet activity. This intervention helps reduce agitation and aggression in clients with Alzheimer's disease by providing a distraction and promoting a calming environment. Reassuring the client and providing emotional support (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice C) should not be the first intervention due to the risk of adverse effects and should only be considered if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective. Applying restraints (Choice D) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for the client's safety as it can lead to further distress and is not the initial priority intervention.

2. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR).
• C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

3. A combination multi-drug cocktail is being considered for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500. Which nursing assessment of the client is most crucial in determining whether therapy should be initiated?

• A. Presence of viral symptoms
• B. Engages in high-risk behaviors
• C. Willingness to comply with complex drug schedules
• D. History of opportunistic infections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial nursing assessment in determining whether therapy should be initiated for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500 is the client's willingness to comply with complex drug schedules. Adherence to antiretroviral therapy is essential for its effectiveness. Assessing the client's willingness and ability to comply with the complex medication regimen is crucial to ensure successful treatment and prevent drug resistance. Choices A, B, and D, although important in the overall care of the client, are not as crucial as assessing the client's willingness to adhere to the prescribed drug regimen.

4. To prevent unnecessary hypoxia during suctioning of a tracheostomy, what must the nurse do?

• A. Apply suction for no more than 10 seconds
• B. Maintain sterile technique
• C. Lubricate 3 to 4 inches of the catheter tip
• D. Withdraw catheter in a circular motion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply suction for no more than 10 seconds. Prolonged suctioning can lead to hypoxia, so it is essential to limit the suctioning time. Maintaining sterile technique (choice B) is important to prevent infections but is not directly related to preventing hypoxia during suctioning. Lubricating the catheter tip (choice C) helps with insertion but does not specifically address hypoxia prevention. Withdrawing the catheter in a circular motion (choice D) is not a standard practice during tracheostomy suctioning and does not help prevent hypoxia.

5. After a lumbar puncture, a client reports a severe headache. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer a dose of acetaminophen.
• B. Elevate the head of the bed.
• C. Encourage the client to rest in a dark room.
• D. Administer caffeine to relieve the headache.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, a severe headache is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Elevating the head of the bed or having the client lie flat can reduce cerebrospinal fluid pressure and alleviate the headache. These positions help prevent further fluid loss and relieve discomfort. While acetaminophen or caffeine may help in relieving the headache, changing the client's position is the priority to address the underlying cause. Resting in a dark room may be beneficial for headache relief but is not the priority intervention compared to adjusting the position to manage cerebrospinal fluid pressure.

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