Nursing Elites

1. A client with Alzheimer's disease is exhibiting signs of agitation and aggression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Reassure the client and provide emotional support.
• B. Redirect the client to a quiet activity.
• C. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam.
• D. Apply soft restraints as needed to prevent harm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to redirect the client to a quiet activity. This intervention helps reduce agitation and aggression in clients with Alzheimer's disease by providing a distraction and promoting a calming environment. Reassuring the client and providing emotional support (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice C) should not be the first intervention due to the risk of adverse effects and should only be considered if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective. Applying restraints (Choice D) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for the client's safety as it can lead to further distress and is not the initial priority intervention.

2. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed trimethoprim. What is the most important teaching point?

• A. Take the medication only when symptoms are severe.
• B. Take the medication until symptoms disappear.
• C. Report any pain or burning with urination.
• D. Take the full course of antibiotics, even if symptoms improve.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Take the full course of antibiotics, even if symptoms improve.' It is crucial for clients to complete the full course of antibiotics as prescribed to ensure that the infection is fully eradicated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics should not be reserved for severe symptoms only; they should be taken as prescribed. Choice B is incorrect as stopping the medication once symptoms disappear may lead to a relapse of the infection. Choice C is important but not the most crucial teaching point when compared to completing the full course of antibiotics.

3. A client is receiving continuous intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to ensure therapeutic heparin levels?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most accurate measure of heparin's therapeutic effect. Heparin increases the time it takes for blood to clot, and the aPTT helps determine whether the dose is within the desired range for anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR, hemoglobin, or platelet count is not specific to assessing therapeutic heparin levels and may not reflect the anticoagulant effect of heparin.

4. Which activity is most important for a client recovering from a hip replacement to avoid during the first few weeks of recovery?

• A. Sitting in a chair for short periods
• B. Crossing the legs while sitting
• C. Walking with assistance
• D. Performing light stretching exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crossing the legs while sitting. Cross-leg position after a hip replacement can significantly increase the risk of hip dislocation. During the first few weeks of recovery, it is crucial for clients to avoid crossing their legs to protect the new joint. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical during the initial recovery phase. Sitting in a chair for short periods, walking with assistance, and performing light stretching exercises are generally encouraged activities that can help in the recovery process without posing a significant risk of complications like hip dislocation.

5. An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Improved blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Reduced preload

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.

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