Nursing Elites

1. A client with Alzheimer's disease is exhibiting signs of agitation and aggression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Reassure the client and provide emotional support.
• B. Redirect the client to a quiet activity.
• C. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam.
• D. Apply soft restraints as needed to prevent harm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to redirect the client to a quiet activity. This intervention helps reduce agitation and aggression in clients with Alzheimer's disease by providing a distraction and promoting a calming environment. Reassuring the client and providing emotional support (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice C) should not be the first intervention due to the risk of adverse effects and should only be considered if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective. Applying restraints (Choice D) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for the client's safety as it can lead to further distress and is not the initial priority intervention.

2. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports nausea and dizziness. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Check the client's vital signs and blood pressure.
• C. Decrease the infusion rate of TPN.
• D. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports symptoms like nausea and dizziness, the first action the nurse should take is to check the client's vital signs and blood pressure. This assessment helps determine the client's overall stability and can provide crucial information to guide further interventions. Checking the blood glucose level (Choice A) may be relevant but is not the priority in this situation. Decreasing the infusion rate of TPN (Choice C) may be necessary but should be based on assessment findings. Administering antiemetic medication (Choice D) should not be the initial action without first assessing the client's vital signs.

3. A client is receiving continuous intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to ensure therapeutic heparin levels?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most accurate measure of heparin's therapeutic effect. Heparin increases the time it takes for blood to clot, and the aPTT helps determine whether the dose is within the desired range for anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR, hemoglobin, or platelet count is not specific to assessing therapeutic heparin levels and may not reflect the anticoagulant effect of heparin.

4. A client with a 42-week gestation refuses induction. What is the most important action the nurse should take?

• A. Discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan.
• B. Explain the risks of induction after 42 weeks.
• C. Ask the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client.
• D. Discuss the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse in this situation is to discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan. By doing so, the nurse can ensure that the client feels heard, respected, and supported in their decision-making process. While explaining the risks of induction after 42 weeks (Choice B) may be important, it is secondary to supporting the client's autonomy and preferences. Asking the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client (Choice C) may delay crucial communication and support that the nurse can provide. Discussing the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor (Choice D) is not the priority when the client has refused induction, as the focus should be on respecting their decision and exploring other options for support.

5. An older adult client with gastroenteritis has been taking the antidiarrheal diphenoxylate for the past 24 hours. What finding requires the nurse to take further action?

• A. Monitor the client’s fluid intake.
• B. Obtain a stool sample for testing.
• C. Administer a laxative to clear the infection.
• D. Assess skin turgor and provide fluids.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Assessing skin turgor is crucial as tented skin turgor indicates dehydration, which can be worsened by antidiarrheal medications like diphenoxylate. Providing fluids is essential to address dehydration in this client. Monitoring fluid intake (choice A) is important, but assessing skin turgor takes precedence in this situation. Obtaining a stool sample for testing (choice B) could be necessary for diagnostic purposes but is not the immediate priority. Administering a laxative (choice C) is contraindicated in this case as it can worsen the client's condition by further exacerbating fluid loss.

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