HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with Alzheimer's disease is exhibiting signs of agitation and aggression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Reassure the client and provide emotional support.
- B. Redirect the client to a quiet activity.
- C. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam.
- D. Apply soft restraints as needed to prevent harm.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to redirect the client to a quiet activity. This intervention helps reduce agitation and aggression in clients with Alzheimer's disease by providing a distraction and promoting a calming environment. Reassuring the client and providing emotional support (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice C) should not be the first intervention due to the risk of adverse effects and should only be considered if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective. Applying restraints (Choice D) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for the client's safety as it can lead to further distress and is not the initial priority intervention.
2. An 11-year-old client admitted to the mental health unit after threatening self-harm. What is the best activity to establish rapport and promote coping?
- A. Bring the client to the team meeting to discuss the treatment plan.
- B. Play a board game with the client and start discussing stressors.
- C. Explain the purpose of each medication the client is taking.
- D. Ask the client to write feelings in a journal and review together.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Playing a board game with the client is an effective way to establish rapport in a relaxed setting, allowing the client to open up about stressors. This activity promotes coping by creating a safe and engaging environment for the client to express their feelings. Choices A, C, and D may not be suitable initially as they involve more formal or intrusive approaches that may not be suitable for building rapport with a client experiencing emotional distress.
3. A client is admitted with an epidural hematoma after a skateboarding accident. How should the nurse differentiate the vascular source of intracranial bleeding?
- A. Monitor for clear fluid leakage from the nose.
- B. Assess for rapid onset of decreased level of consciousness.
- C. Check for bruising around the head and neck.
- D. Assess for changes in pupil size and reactivity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An epidural hematoma is characterized by a rapid onset of symptoms, including decreased level of consciousness, due to arterial bleeding, which differentiates it from other types of intracranial hemorrhage. Monitoring for clear fluid leakage from the nose (choice A) is more indicative of a basilar skull fracture and cerebrospinal fluid leak. Checking for bruising around the head and neck (choice C) is more suggestive of soft tissue injuries or facial fractures. Assessing for changes in pupil size and reactivity (choice D) is essential in evaluating traumatic brain injuries, but it is not specific to differentiating the vascular source of intracranial bleeding in an epidural hematoma.
4. A client presents with three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. What interpretation should the nurse provide?
- A. CAGE is a tool for general substance abuse screening.
- B. Two positive responses suggest alcohol dependence.
- C. One positive response does not indicate alcohol addiction.
- D. All four responses must be positive to suggest alcohol dependence.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Two positive responses on the CAGE questionnaire strongly suggest alcohol dependence. Choice A is incorrect as the CAGE questionnaire specifically targets alcohol abuse. Choice C is incorrect because one positive response is not enough to indicate alcohol addiction. Choice D is incorrect because alcohol dependence can be suggested with two positive responses, not all four.
5. A combination multi-drug cocktail is being considered for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500. Which nursing assessment of the client is most crucial in determining whether therapy should be initiated?
- A. Presence of viral symptoms
- B. Engages in high-risk behaviors
- C. Willingness to comply with complex drug schedules
- D. History of opportunistic infections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most crucial nursing assessment in determining whether therapy should be initiated for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500 is the client's willingness to comply with complex drug schedules. Adherence to antiretroviral therapy is essential for its effectiveness. Assessing the client's willingness and ability to comply with the complex medication regimen is crucial to ensure successful treatment and prevent drug resistance. Choices A, B, and D, although important in the overall care of the client, are not as crucial as assessing the client's willingness to adhere to the prescribed drug regimen.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access