Nursing Elites

1. A client with Alzheimer's disease is exhibiting signs of agitation and aggression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Reassure the client and provide emotional support.
• B. Redirect the client to a quiet activity.
• C. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam.
• D. Apply soft restraints as needed to prevent harm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to redirect the client to a quiet activity. This intervention helps reduce agitation and aggression in clients with Alzheimer's disease by providing a distraction and promoting a calming environment. Reassuring the client and providing emotional support (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice C) should not be the first intervention due to the risk of adverse effects and should only be considered if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective. Applying restraints (Choice D) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for the client's safety as it can lead to further distress and is not the initial priority intervention.

2. An older adult client with gastroenteritis has been taking the antidiarrheal diphenoxylate for the past 24 hours. What finding requires the nurse to take further action?

• A. Monitor the client’s fluid intake.
• B. Obtain a stool sample for testing.
• C. Administer a laxative to clear the infection.
• D. Assess skin turgor and provide fluids.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Assessing skin turgor is crucial as tented skin turgor indicates dehydration, which can be worsened by antidiarrheal medications like diphenoxylate. Providing fluids is essential to address dehydration in this client. Monitoring fluid intake (choice A) is important, but assessing skin turgor takes precedence in this situation. Obtaining a stool sample for testing (choice B) could be necessary for diagnostic purposes but is not the immediate priority. Administering a laxative (choice C) is contraindicated in this case as it can worsen the client's condition by further exacerbating fluid loss.

3. A male client reports that he took tadalafil 10 mg two hours ago and now feels flushed. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the client to increase oral fluid intake.
• B. Reassure the client that flushing is a common side effect.
• C. Advise the client to take nitroglycerin as a precaution.
• D. Ask the client to come to the emergency room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reassure the client that flushing is a common side effect. Tadalafil, a medication used for erectile dysfunction, can cause flushing as a common side effect. In this situation, the nurse should provide reassurance to the client that the flushing is expected and not necessarily a cause for concern. Increasing oral fluid intake (choice A) may be beneficial for other conditions but is not directly related to tadalafil-induced flushing. Advising the client to take nitroglycerin (choice C) is incorrect, as nitroglycerin is not indicated for flushing. Asking the client to come to the emergency room (choice D) is unnecessary at this point since flushing is a known side effect and does not typically require urgent medical attention.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following lung surgery. What is the most important intervention to ensure the chest tube functions properly?

• A. Clamp the tube if there is excessive drainage
• B. Empty the drainage chamber every 2 hours
• C. Keep the drainage system below chest level
• D. Milk the tube to prevent clots from forming

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Keeping the chest tube drainage system below chest level ensures that gravity assists with drainage and prevents fluid or air from flowing back into the pleural space, which could compromise lung function. Clamping the tube if there is excessive drainage (choice A) is incorrect as it can lead to a buildup of pressure and compromise the drainage system. Emptying the drainage chamber every 2 hours (choice B) is important but not as crucial as maintaining the drainage system below chest level. Milking the tube to prevent clots from forming (choice D) is incorrect and could lead to complications such as tube occlusion or damage to the tissue.

5. An older adult client with eye dryness reports itching and excessive tearing. Which medication group is most likely to have produced this client's symptoms?

• A. Antiinfectives and antidepressants.
• B. Anticoagulants and antihistamines.
• C. Antiretrovirals and antivirals.
• D. Antihypertensives and anticholinergics.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Antihypertensives and anticholinergics. Anticholinergics are known to cause dryness of secretions, including dry eyes, which can lead to symptoms of eye dryness, itching, and excessive tearing as reported by the client. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not typically cause the symptoms described by the client. Antiinfectives, antidepressants, anticoagulants, antihistamines, antiretrovirals, and antivirals do not commonly lead to dry eyes, itching, and excessive tearing.

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