HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client presents to the labor and delivery unit with a report of leaking fluid that is greenish-brown vaginal discharge. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
- B. Begin continuous fetal monitoring
- C. Check the amniotic fluid pH
- D. Assess maternal vital signs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Greenish-brown discharge likely indicates meconium in the amniotic fluid, which poses a risk to the fetus. Continuous fetal monitoring should be initiated immediately to assess for signs of fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn, so timely monitoring is crucial. Checking the amniotic fluid pH can help confirm the presence of meconium but is not the priority over fetal monitoring. Assessing maternal vital signs is important but secondary to monitoring the fetal well-being in this urgent situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can follow once the immediate fetal assessment is underway.
2. After a spider bite on the lower extremity, a client is admitted to treat an infection that is spreading up the leg. Which admission assessment findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Swollen lymph nodes in the groin
- B. Core body temperature of 100.5°F
- C. All of the above
- D. Elevated white blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: All of the above findings should be reported to the healthcare provider for prompt evaluation and treatment. Swollen lymph nodes in the groin indicate regional lymphatic involvement, a core body temperature of 100.5°F suggests a mild fever response, and an elevated white blood cell count indicates an ongoing infection process. These findings collectively point towards the spread of infection and require immediate attention to prevent further complications.
3. A client with hyperthyroidism is admitted for total thyroidectomy. What is the nurse's priority post-operative intervention?
- A. Monitor the client's calcium levels for hypocalcemia.
- B. Monitor for signs of respiratory distress.
- C. Administer oral calcium supplements.
- D. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's calcium levels for hypocalcemia. After a total thyroidectomy, there is a risk of accidental removal or damage to the parathyroid glands, leading to hypocalcemia. This complication can manifest within the first 24-48 hours post-op. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to prevent serious complications such as tetany or seizures. While monitoring for respiratory distress is important, it is not the priority in this case. Administering oral calcium supplements should only be done based on the healthcare provider's prescription and after assessing the client's calcium levels. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is beneficial for respiratory function but is not the priority intervention for a client at risk for hypocalcemia post-thyroidectomy.
4. A client with a colostomy is being discharged. What teaching is most important for the nurse to provide?
- A. Change the ostomy bag daily to prevent skin irritation.
- B. Avoid foods that can cause gas, such as broccoli.
- C. Empty the ostomy pouch when it is one-third full.
- D. Use a skin barrier to protect the surrounding skin.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important teaching for a client with a colostomy is to empty the ostomy pouch when it is one-third full. This practice helps prevent leakage and skin irritation by maintaining the proper seal of the pouching system. Changing the ostomy bag daily (Choice A) is not necessary unless it leaks or becomes loose. Avoiding gas-producing foods (Choice B) is essential for some clients but is not the most important teaching. Using a skin barrier (Choice D) is important but not as crucial as emptying the ostomy pouch at the right time to prevent complications.
5. An adolescent with intellectual disability is admitted for refusing to complete oral hygiene. A behavior modification program is recommended. Which reinforcement is best?
- A. Unit tasks for each omitted teeth brushing.
- B. Candy for each successfully completed hygiene task.
- C. Privilege restriction for refusing hygiene tasks.
- D. Preferred activities or tokens for compliance.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best reinforcement strategy in this scenario is providing preferred activities or tokens for compliance. Positive reinforcement is effective in behavior modification programs for individuals with intellectual disabilities. Offering preferred activities or tokens serves as a reward for completing the desired behavior, in this case, oral hygiene tasks. Choices A, B, and C do not focus on reinforcing the desired behavior with positive incentives. Choice A does not provide a positive reinforcement for compliance but rather focuses on the omission of a task. Choice B uses candy, which may not be ideal for oral hygiene. Choice C involves punishment rather than positive reinforcement.
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