Nursing Elites

1. A client presents to the labor and delivery unit with a report of leaking fluid that is greenish-brown vaginal discharge. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
• B. Begin continuous fetal monitoring
• C. Check the amniotic fluid pH
• D. Assess maternal vital signs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Greenish-brown discharge likely indicates meconium in the amniotic fluid, which poses a risk to the fetus. Continuous fetal monitoring should be initiated immediately to assess for signs of fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn, so timely monitoring is crucial. Checking the amniotic fluid pH can help confirm the presence of meconium but is not the priority over fetal monitoring. Assessing maternal vital signs is important but secondary to monitoring the fetal well-being in this urgent situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can follow once the immediate fetal assessment is underway.

2. When assessing a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder who reports taking a handful of medications, what information is most important to obtain?

• A. What drugs the client used in the suicide attempt.
• B. When the client last took medications for bipolar disorder.
• C. Whether the client has attempted suicide before.
• D. Which family member has the suicide note.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain information on what drugs the client used in the suicide attempt. This information is crucial for assessing the severity of the overdose, potential drug interactions, and determining the appropriate treatment plan. Choice B is not as urgent as identifying the drugs taken during the suicide attempt. Choice C, while important, is not as immediately critical as knowing the specific medications involved. Choice D is unrelated to the immediate medical needs of the client.

3. A client with acute pancreatitis is experiencing severe abdominal pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help manage the client's pain?

• A. Encourage deep breathing exercises
• B. Place the client in a side-lying position with knees bent
• C. Administer oral analgesics as prescribed
• D. Encourage the client to take small sips of water

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention to help manage the client's pain in acute pancreatitis is to place the client in a side-lying position with knees bent. This position can alleviate abdominal pain by reducing pressure on the pancreas and improving comfort. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice A) is beneficial for other conditions but may not directly help alleviate abdominal pain in pancreatitis. Administering oral analgesics (Choice C) may be necessary but is not the initial priority for managing pain in acute pancreatitis. Encouraging the client to take small sips of water (Choice D) is important for hydration but is not directly related to pain management in this context.

4. When assessing an IV site used for fluid replacement and medication administration, the client complains of tenderness when the arm is touched above the site. Which additional assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Cool skin at the IV insertion site
• B. Presence of fluid leaking around the IV catheter
• C. Swelling above the IV site
• D. Red streaks tracking the vein

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Red streaks tracking the vein." Red streaks indicate phlebitis, an inflammation of the vein that can lead to serious complications like infection or thrombophlebitis. Immediate intervention is required to prevent further damage. Choice A, cool skin at the IV insertion site, could indicate decreased circulation but is not as urgent as addressing phlebitis. Choice B, presence of fluid leaking around the IV catheter, may indicate infiltration or dislodgement of the catheter, requiring intervention but not as urgently as phlebitis. Choice C, swelling above the IV site, may suggest localized inflammation but doesn't pose an immediate threat like phlebitis does.

5. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Thiamine supplementation
• B. Folic acid replacement
• C. Intravenous glucose
• D. Magnesium sulfate administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

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