Nursing Elites

1. A client presents to the labor and delivery unit with a report of leaking fluid that is greenish-brown vaginal discharge. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
• B. Begin continuous fetal monitoring
• C. Check the amniotic fluid pH
• D. Assess maternal vital signs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Greenish-brown discharge likely indicates meconium in the amniotic fluid, which poses a risk to the fetus. Continuous fetal monitoring should be initiated immediately to assess for signs of fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn, so timely monitoring is crucial. Checking the amniotic fluid pH can help confirm the presence of meconium but is not the priority over fetal monitoring. Assessing maternal vital signs is important but secondary to monitoring the fetal well-being in this urgent situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can follow once the immediate fetal assessment is underway.

2. A client with asthma is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler.
• B. Take the medication only during asthma attacks.
• C. Avoid using the inhaler before exercise.
• D. Clean the inhaler with hot water after each use.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching the nurse should provide to a client prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid is to rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler. This helps prevent oral fungal infections, a common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids. Choice B is incorrect because inhaled corticosteroids are usually used regularly, not just during asthma attacks. Choice C is incorrect as using the inhaler before exercise can actually help prevent exercise-induced bronchospasm. Choice D is incorrect because cleaning the inhaler with hot water after each use is not necessary and may damage the device.

3. A client receiving full-strength continuous enteral tube feeding develops diarrhea. What intervention should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the feeding and provide IV fluids.
• B. Dilute the feeding to half strength and continue at the same rate.
• C. Reduce the feeding rate and monitor for improvement.
• D. Add fiber to the client's diet to resolve diarrhea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops diarrhea from continuous enteral tube feeding, diluting the feeding to half strength and continuing at the same rate is the appropriate intervention. This helps reduce the strength of the feeding, minimizing gastrointestinal upset while still providing necessary nutrition. Stopping the feeding abruptly (Choice A) may lead to nutritional deficits. Simply reducing the feeding rate (Choice C) may not effectively address the issue of diarrhea. Adding fiber (Choice D) could potentially worsen the diarrhea in this scenario instead of resolving it.

4. An older male client, who is a retired chef, is hospitalized with a diabetic ulcer on his foot. His daughter tells the nurse that her father has become increasingly obsessed with the way his food is prepared in the hospital. The nurse's response should be based on what information?

• A. His daughter's observations suggest the client is depressed
• B. His compulsiveness about food may indicate new cognitive decline
• C. Obsessiveness with food is common in diabetic clients
• D. If the client was compulsive about food when he was younger, the aging process can magnify this

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Age can magnify pre-existing compulsive tendencies. If the client was detail-oriented about food earlier in life, this behavior may intensify with aging. It's important to acknowledge and address the client's concerns respectfully. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the daughter's observations do not necessarily point to depression, the compulsiveness about food does not indicate new cognitive decline without further assessment, and obsessiveness with food is not specifically common in diabetic clients.

5. When taking a health history, which information collected by the nurse correlates most directly to a diagnosis of chronic peripheral arterial insufficiency?

• A. Reports of leg cramping at rest
• B. Family history of heart disease
• C. Current use of beta-blockers
• D. History of intermittent claudication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Intermittent claudication, or pain in the legs while walking that is relieved by rest, is a classic symptom of peripheral arterial insufficiency. Other factors such as a family history or medication use may contribute to cardiovascular health, but claudication is the most specific indicator. Leg cramping at rest is more indicative of conditions like peripheral neuropathy or deep vein thrombosis. Family history of heart disease and current use of beta-blockers are relevant to overall cardiovascular health, but they are not as directly related to chronic peripheral arterial insufficiency as intermittent claudication.

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