Nursing Elites

1. A client with acute pancreatitis is prescribed nothing by mouth (NPO). What should the nurse prioritize in this client's care?

• A. Administer oral pain medication.
• B. Monitor the client's intake and output.
• C. Monitor the client for signs of infection.
• D. Insert a nasogastric tube for decompression.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's intake and output. When a client with acute pancreatitis is prescribed nothing by mouth (NPO), the nurse should prioritize monitoring the client's intake and output. This is crucial for assessing the client's fluid balance and ensuring that they are not becoming dehydrated or developing complications related to fluid status. Option A is incorrect because oral pain medication should not be administered to a client who is NPO. Option C is not the priority at this time, although monitoring for infection is important in the overall care of the client. Option D is not the initial priority unless there are specific indications for decompression, which would be determined by the healthcare provider.

2. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and peripheral edema. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Elevate the legs to reduce swelling.
• B. Restrict fluids to reduce fluid overload.
• C. Administer furosemide to reduce fluid overload.
• D. Monitor the client's intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering a diuretic like furosemide is the priority intervention for a client with cirrhosis, ascites, and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps reduce fluid overload by promoting diuresis. Elevating the legs may provide some symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Restricting fluids is not appropriate initially as the client needs proper hydration while managing fluid balance. Monitoring intake and output is important but not the first action to address the immediate fluid overload in this client.

3. A client in the third trimester of pregnancy reports that she feels some 'lumpy places' in her breasts and that her nipples sometimes leak a yellowish fluid. She has an appointment with her healthcare provider in two weeks. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the client to immediately see her provider for an evaluation
• B. Assess the fluid for signs of infection
• C. Explain that this normal secretion can be assessed at the next visit
• D. Recommend breast ultrasound to rule out abnormalities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The yellowish fluid is likely colostrum, a normal finding in late pregnancy as the breasts prepare for lactation. It is common for women in the third trimester to experience 'lumpy places' in the breasts due to increased milk duct development. In this situation, the nurse should educate the client that these findings are normal physiological changes associated with pregnancy. Since the client has an upcoming appointment with her healthcare provider in two weeks, it is appropriate to reassure her that this can be further assessed during that visit. Instructing the client to immediately see her provider (Choice A) is unnecessary as this is a common finding in late pregnancy. Assessing the fluid for signs of infection (Choice B) is not warranted as colostrum leakage is a normal occurrence. Recommending a breast ultrasound (Choice D) is premature without further assessment by the healthcare provider.

4. A client presents with a suspected infection and has a fever of 102°F. What is the nurse's immediate priority?

• A. Administer antipyretics as ordered
• B. Take a blood culture before administering antibiotics
• C. Encourage fluid intake to prevent dehydration
• D. Monitor vital signs every hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The immediate priority for a client with a suspected infection and fever is to take a blood culture before administering antibiotics. This step is crucial to identify the causative organism and ensure appropriate treatment. Administering antipyretics or encouraging fluid intake are important but should come after obtaining the blood culture to avoid interfering with test results. Monitoring vital signs, although essential, is not the immediate priority compared to identifying the infectious agent.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the medication immediately
• B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
• C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
• D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.

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