Nursing Elites

1. A client with a recent myocardial infarction is prescribed a beta-blocker. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor the client for bradycardia.
• B. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.
• C. Monitor the client for signs of hyperglycemia.
• D. Monitor for signs of fluid retention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.' Beta-blockers can lead to decreased heart rate, but bradycardia is not the primary side effect to monitor. Monitoring for bradycardia is more relevant when administering medications like digoxin. Hyperglycemia is associated with medications like corticosteroids, not beta-blockers. Fluid retention is a side effect seen with medications like corticosteroids or calcium channel blockers, not beta-blockers. Therefore, in a client taking a beta-blocker after a myocardial infarction, monitoring for hypotension is crucial due to the medication's mechanism of action.

2. A client is receiving continuous intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to ensure therapeutic heparin levels?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most accurate measure of heparin's therapeutic effect. Heparin increases the time it takes for blood to clot, and the aPTT helps determine whether the dose is within the desired range for anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR, hemoglobin, or platelet count is not specific to assessing therapeutic heparin levels and may not reflect the anticoagulant effect of heparin.

3. While auscultating heart sounds, the nurse hears a swishing sound. How should this sound be documented?

• A. Heart murmur.
• B. Murmur.
• C. S3 sound.
• D. S4 sound.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Murmur.' A murmur is a swishing sound heard during auscultation, typically caused by turbulent blood flow through the heart or valves. Choices C and D, 'S3 sound' and 'S4 sound,' refer to specific heart sounds associated with different cardiac conditions, not the general description of a swishing sound. Choice A, 'Heart murmur,' is redundant as 'murmur' alone is sufficient to describe the swishing sound heard.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which intervention is most important to promote effective breathing?

• A. Encourage diaphragmatic breathing
• B. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate
• C. Have the client perform range of motion exercises
• D. Place the client in a supine position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging diaphragmatic breathing is crucial in clients with COPD as it helps improve lung expansion and oxygen exchange, promoting more effective breathing. This intervention aids in reducing dyspnea and enhancing ventilation. Increasing the client's oxygen flow rate may not be appropriate and can potentially worsen hypercapnia in individuals with COPD. Performing range of motion exercises and placing the client in a supine position do not directly address the breathing difficulties associated with COPD exacerbation.

5. A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased oxygen saturation of 96%.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 89%.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• D. Decreased heart rate of 70 beats per minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An oxygen saturation of 89% indicates hypoxemia, which is below the normal range (usually 95-100%). This finding requires immediate intervention as it signifies inadequate oxygenation. Options A, C, and D are within normal limits and do not indicate an urgent need for intervention. Option A indicates a good oxygen saturation level, option C denotes a normal respiratory rate, and option D suggests a normal heart rate. Therefore, these options do not require immediate intervention compared to the critically low oxygen saturation level of 89% in option B.

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