HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours later, the client’s urine output is 25 ml/hour. What is the most likely cause?
- A. This is a normal finding after surgery.
- B. Oliguria signals tubular necrosis related to hypoperfusion.
- C. Oliguria signals dehydration and fluid loss.
- D. Urine output of 25 ml/hour is an expected finding after splenectomy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria, or decreased urine output, after surgery can indicate tubular necrosis due to hypoperfusion, which may require intervention to restore renal function. Choice A is incorrect as oliguria is not a normal finding after surgery. Choice C is incorrect because dehydration is less likely in this context compared to tubular necrosis. Choice D is incorrect as a urine output of 25 ml/hour is not expected after splenectomy and should raise concern for renal impairment.
2. A client with a history of adrenal insufficiency is admitted with acute adrenal crisis. The client complains of nausea and joint pain, vital signs show a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138, and blood pressure of 80/60. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
- B. Infuse an intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
- D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute adrenal crisis, the priority intervention is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus to address the hypotension (blood pressure of 80/60) and help stabilize the client's condition. Adequate fluid volume is crucial in managing adrenal insufficiency crisis. Options A, C, and D do not directly address the hypotension and fluid volume depletion that are critical in this situation. Analgesics, antipyretics, and cooling blankets may be considered later, but the immediate focus should be on fluid resuscitation.
3. A client with multiple sclerosis is admitted with an acute exacerbation. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Monitor the client’s vital signs every hour.
- B. Assess for changes in the client’s muscle strength.
- C. Administer prescribed corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
- D. Educate the client on managing fatigue and preventing relapses.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Administering prescribed corticosteroids to reduce inflammation is the priority action when a client with multiple sclerosis is admitted with an acute exacerbation. Corticosteroids help manage symptoms during exacerbations and reduce inflammation. Monitoring vital signs and assessing muscle strength are important aspects of care but not the priority during an acute exacerbation. Educating the client on managing fatigue and preventing relapses is essential but can be addressed after the acute exacerbation has been managed.
4. The nurse is assessing a client 2 hours postoperatively following an appendectomy. The nurse should intervene for which abnormal finding?
- A. Heart rate of 88 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 100/60
- C. Oxygen saturation of 94%
- D. Respiratory rate of 16
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oxygen saturation levels below 95% indicate hypoxia and require immediate intervention. A heart rate of 88 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 100/60, and a respiratory rate of 16 are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation is a critical parameter reflecting the client's oxygenation status.
5. A client with Alzheimer's disease is exhibiting signs of agitation and aggression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Reassure the client and provide emotional support.
- B. Redirect the client to a quiet activity.
- C. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam.
- D. Apply soft restraints as needed to prevent harm.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to redirect the client to a quiet activity. This intervention helps reduce agitation and aggression in clients with Alzheimer's disease by providing a distraction and promoting a calming environment. Reassuring the client and providing emotional support (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice C) should not be the first intervention due to the risk of adverse effects and should only be considered if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective. Applying restraints (Choice D) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for the client's safety as it can lead to further distress and is not the initial priority intervention.
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