a client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy twelve hours later the clients urine output is 25 mlhour what is the most likely ca
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. A client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours later, the client’s urine output is 25 ml/hour. What is the most likely cause?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria, or decreased urine output, after surgery can indicate tubular necrosis due to hypoperfusion, which may require intervention to restore renal function. Choice A is incorrect as oliguria is not a normal finding after surgery. Choice C is incorrect because dehydration is less likely in this context compared to tubular necrosis. Choice D is incorrect as a urine output of 25 ml/hour is not expected after splenectomy and should raise concern for renal impairment.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-sodium diet. What is the nurse's priority teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day.' For a client with chronic kidney disease, limiting sodium intake is crucial because it helps prevent fluid retention and reduces the workload on the kidneys. Choice A, 'Choose fresh fruits and vegetables,' is generally a healthy dietary recommendation but not the priority when focusing on a low-sodium diet. Choice B, 'Restrict fluid intake to 1500 mL per day,' is important but secondary to limiting sodium intake. Choice D, 'Increase potassium intake to prevent hypokalemia,' is not the priority teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease on a low-sodium diet.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes is found unconscious with a blood glucose of 40 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a 50% dextrose bolus intravenously. In unconscious clients with hypoglycemia, IV dextrose rapidly raises the blood glucose level. Glucagon would be a slower option and is typically used if IV access is unavailable. Oral glucose gel is not appropriate for an unconscious client as it requires swallowing and may cause aspiration. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes delays immediate treatment and could lead to further deterioration.

4. A client with hypocalcemia is receiving calcium gluconate. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Wheezing and stridor may indicate a severe allergic reaction to calcium gluconate, such as anaphylaxis, which requires immediate intervention. While hypocalcemia can present with decreased deep tendon reflexes and positive Chvostek's sign, these findings do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Decreased bowel sounds are not directly related to a severe reaction to calcium gluconate and do not require immediate intervention.

5. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. The client is prescribed intravenous antibiotics and oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in respiratory rate indicates that the client's breathing is becoming more stable, which suggests an improvement in their condition. Respiratory rate is a critical indicator of respiratory status and oxygenation. Increased white blood cell count (choice A) suggests ongoing infection, crackles on lung auscultation (choice B) indicate fluid in the lungs, and productive cough with green sputum (choice C) may indicate persistent infection or airway inflammation, which do not necessarily reflect improvement in pneumonia.

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