HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours later, the client’s urine output is 25 ml/hour. What is the most likely cause?
- A. This is a normal finding after surgery.
- B. Oliguria signals tubular necrosis related to hypoperfusion.
- C. Oliguria signals dehydration and fluid loss.
- D. Urine output of 25 ml/hour is an expected finding after splenectomy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria, or decreased urine output, after surgery can indicate tubular necrosis due to hypoperfusion, which may require intervention to restore renal function. Choice A is incorrect as oliguria is not a normal finding after surgery. Choice C is incorrect because dehydration is less likely in this context compared to tubular necrosis. Choice D is incorrect as a urine output of 25 ml/hour is not expected after splenectomy and should raise concern for renal impairment.
2. Where should the healthcare provider consider starting a screening program for hypothyroidism?
- A. A business and professional women’s group.
- B. An African-American senior citizens' center.
- C. A daycare center in a Hispanic neighborhood.
- D. An after-school center for Native American teens.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An African-American senior citizens' center is the most appropriate location to start a screening program for hypothyroidism. Older adults are at an increased risk of hypothyroidism, and African-Americans are more likely to be underserved in healthcare. Therefore, targeting this group can help in early detection and management of hypothyroidism. The other options, such as a business and professional women’s group, a daycare center in a Hispanic neighborhood, and an after-school center for Native American teens, do not align as closely with the demographic at higher risk for hypothyroidism.
3. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs). What should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor for signs of liver toxicity.
- B. Assess for gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea or diarrhea.
- C. Monitor for signs of infection, such as fever or sore throat.
- D. Administer DMARDs with meals to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever or sore throat, is crucial when a client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs). DMARDs can suppress the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Early detection of infections allows for prompt treatment and helps prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while liver toxicity and gastrointestinal side effects are possible side effects of DMARDs, monitoring for signs of infection takes priority due to the increased risk of infections associated with these medications.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What lab value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. White blood cell count.
- B. Hemoglobin level.
- C. Serum creatinine level.
- D. Platelet count.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hemoglobin levels should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of the therapy and ensure the client is not developing anemia. Increased hemoglobin levels indicate successful treatment, whereas very high levels may suggest erythropoietin is overcorrecting the anemia. Monitoring the white blood cell count is not directly related to erythropoietin therapy for anemia. Serum creatinine level is used to assess kidney function rather than the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Platelet count is not typically affected by erythropoietin therapy and is not a key indicator of its effectiveness.
5. Which intervention should be prioritized by the nurse when assessing tissue perfusion post-above knee amputation (AKA)?
- A. Evaluate the closest proximal pulse.
- B. Observe color and amount of wound drainage.
- C. Observe for swelling around the stump.
- D. Assess the skin elasticity of the stump.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the closest proximal pulse when assessing tissue perfusion post-above knee amputation (AKA). Checking the closest proximal pulse provides the best indication of tissue perfusion in the extremities after an AKA procedure. Observing the color and amount of wound drainage (Choice B) is important for wound care but does not directly assess tissue perfusion. Observing for swelling around the stump (Choice C) may indicate inflammation or fluid accumulation but is not the most direct way to assess tissue perfusion. Assessing the skin elasticity of the stump (Choice D) is more related to skin integrity and wound healing rather than tissue perfusion.
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