Nursing Elites

1. A client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours later, the client’s urine output is 25 ml/hour. What is the most likely cause?

• A. This is a normal finding after surgery.
• B. Oliguria signals tubular necrosis related to hypoperfusion.
• C. Oliguria signals dehydration and fluid loss.
• D. Urine output of 25 ml/hour is an expected finding after splenectomy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria, or decreased urine output, after surgery can indicate tubular necrosis due to hypoperfusion, which may require intervention to restore renal function. Choice A is incorrect as oliguria is not a normal finding after surgery. Choice C is incorrect because dehydration is less likely in this context compared to tubular necrosis. Choice D is incorrect as a urine output of 25 ml/hour is not expected after splenectomy and should raise concern for renal impairment.

2. A client with COPD and a history of emphysema presents with increasing shortness of breath. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's distress.
• B. Auscultate the client's lung sounds and oxygen saturation.
• C. Determine if the client is experiencing anxiety.
• D. Assess the oxygen delivery system.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to auscultate the client's lung sounds and oxygen saturation. This helps in assessing the respiratory status of the client, which is crucial in managing COPD and emphysema exacerbations. Checking for any abnormalities in lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation levels can provide important information for immediate intervention. Option A is not the first action to take in this situation as directly assessing the client's respiratory status is more immediate. Option C, determining if the client is experiencing anxiety, is important but should come after assessing the physical respiratory status. Option D, assessing the oxygen delivery system, is also essential but should follow the direct assessment of the client's respiratory status.

3. An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Improved blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Reduced preload

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.

4. An unresponsive male victim of a diving accident is brought to the emergency department where immediate surgery is required to save his life. No family members are available. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Ask the friend to sign an informed consent.
• B. Notify the unit manager that a court order is needed.
• C. Continue providing life support until a guardian is found.
• D. Proceed with surgery preparation without consent.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In emergency situations where immediate surgery is required to save a patient's life and no family members are available, consent can be waived to proceed with necessary interventions. The priority in this scenario is to proceed with surgery preparation without waiting for consent, as any delay could jeopardize the patient's life. Asking the friend to sign informed consent or notifying the unit manager for a court order would cause unnecessary delays, which are not advisable in this critical situation. Continuing life support until a guardian is found is not the most appropriate action when immediate surgical intervention is necessary.

5. A client receiving heparin therapy develops sudden chest pain and dyspnea. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer oxygen and elevate the head of the bed.
• B. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin as prescribed.
• C. Assess for signs of bleeding at the injection site.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of albuterol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen and elevate the head of the bed. These interventions help relieve dyspnea and chest pain, which can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism or other complications during heparin therapy. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not the initial priority in this situation as the client's symptoms are not suggestive of angina. Assessing for bleeding (Choice C) is important but not the first action needed to address chest pain and dyspnea. Administering albuterol (Choice D) is not indicated unless there are specific respiratory issues requiring it, which are not described in the scenario.

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