Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted to the ICU with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. What is the first intervention the nurse should implement?

• A. Evaluate the client's swallowing ability.
• B. Reorient the client frequently.
• C. Patch one eye to minimize confusion.
• D. Perform range of motion exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's swallowing ability. Osmotic demyelination can cause dysphagia, putting the client at risk for aspiration. Assessing swallowing function is crucial to prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Reorienting the client frequently (Choice B) is more suitable for confusion related to conditions like delirium. Patching one eye (Choice C) is a technique used for diplopia or double vision, not specifically indicated for osmotic demyelination. Performing range of motion exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial for preventing complications of immobility but is not the priority intervention for osmotic demyelination.

2. A 3-year-old boy was successfully toilet trained prior to his admission to the hospital for injuries sustained from a fall. His parents are very concerned that the child has regressed in his toileting behaviors. Which information should the nurse provide to the parents?

• A. Regression in toileting may indicate a neurological complication
• B. The hospital staff can assist with toilet training efforts
• C. It is common for children to regress in toileting during hospital stays
• D. A potty chair should be brought from home so he can maintain his toileting skills

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When children are hospitalized, it is common for them to regress in toileting behaviors due to the unfamiliar environment and stress. It is important for the nurse to provide reassurance to the parents in such situations. Option A is incorrect because suggesting neurological complications without evidence could cause unnecessary alarm. Option B is not the most appropriate response as the focus should be on explaining the common regression in toileting. Option D may not address the underlying reasons for the regression and may not be practical during the hospital stay.

3. The nurse assesses a 72-year-old client who was admitted for right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding?

• A. Decreased urinary output
• B. Jugular vein distention
• C. Pleural effusion
• D. Bibasilar crackles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct! In right-sided congestive heart failure, jugular vein distention is a common finding due to the backup of blood in the systemic circulation. This results in increased venous pressure, leading to jugular vein distention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased urinary output, pleural effusion, and bibasilar crackles are more commonly associated with other conditions such as kidney dysfunction, lung issues, and pulmonary edema.

4. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Maintain a consistent intake of leafy green vegetables
• B. Use an electric razor when shaving
• C. Monitor blood pressure daily
• D. Avoid eating bananas and oranges

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients on warfarin are at increased risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant effects. Using an electric razor reduces the risk of cuts and bleeding, which is an important safety precaution. While leafy greens should not be avoided, their intake should be consistent to maintain a stable level of vitamin K in the body. Monitoring blood pressure daily is important for other conditions but not directly related to warfarin therapy. Avoiding bananas and oranges is not a standard instruction for clients on warfarin.

5. Following a cardiac catheterization and placement of a stent in the right coronary artery, the nurse administers prasugrel, a platelet inhibitor, to the client. To monitor for adverse effects from the medication, which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's care plan?

• A. Check platelet count
• B. Observe the color of urine
• C. Review liver function tests
• D. Monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prasugrel is a platelet inhibitor, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for bleeding, particularly at the catheterization site and in other areas, is the most important assessment following administration of the drug. Checking platelet count and observing urine color are relevant but not as immediate. Reviewing liver function tests is not directly related to the adverse effects of prasugrel.

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