HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum ammonia level of 100 mcg/dl
- B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
- C. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
- D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 100 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated serum ammonia levels indicate significant liver dysfunction and an increased risk of worsening encephalopathy. Bilirubin level and prothrombin time are important in assessing liver function, but in the context of hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels take precedence as they directly contribute to neurological symptoms. Serum sodium level, though important, is not the primary concern when managing hepatic encephalopathy.
2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is admitted with chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- D. Echocardiogram
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An electrocardiogram should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of CAD and chest pain. An ECG provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity, helping to identify signs of ischemia or a heart attack. While other diagnostic tests like chest X-ray, arterial blood gases, and echocardiogram may also be necessary in the evaluation of chest pain, they do not provide the initial direct assessment of cardiac ischemia that an ECG does.
3. The nurse is preparing a 50 ml dose of 50% dextrose IV for a client with insulin shock. What is the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Dilute the dextrose in one liter of 0.9% Normal Saline solution.
- B. Mix the dextrose in a 50 ml piggyback for a total volume of 100 ml.
- C. Push the undiluted dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion.
- D. Ask the pharmacist to add the dextrose to a TPN solution.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct immediate intervention by the nurse in this situation is to push the undiluted 50% dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion. This is because in cases of insulin shock, where the client has dangerously low blood sugar levels, administering 50% dextrose directly into the bloodstream helps rapidly increase blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because diluting the dextrose in one liter of normal saline would delay the administration of glucose, which is needed urgently. Choice B is incorrect as mixing the dextrose in a piggyback solution would also delay the administration of the concentrated dextrose. Choice D is incorrect because adding dextrose to a TPN solution is not the immediate intervention needed to address the low blood sugar levels in a client experiencing insulin shock.
4. The mother of a one-month-old boy born at home brings the infant to his first well-baby visit. The infant was born two weeks after his due date and is described as a 'good, quiet baby' who almost never cries. To assess for hypothyroidism, what question is most important for the nurse to ask the mother?
- A. Has your son had any immunizations yet?
- B. Is your son sleepy and difficult to feed?
- C. Are you breastfeeding or bottle-feeding your son?
- D. Were any relatives born with birth defects?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Excessive sleepiness and difficulty feeding can be signs of hypothyroidism in infants. Asking about the infant's sleepiness and feeding pattern is crucial in assessing for hypothyroidism. Choice A is incorrect because immunizations are not directly related to hypothyroidism. Choice C is about feeding method and not specific to hypothyroidism. Choice D is unrelated as it asks about relatives with birth defects, which does not directly assess the infant's condition.
5. A male client with cancer, who is receiving antineoplastic drugs, is admitted to the hospital. What findings are most often manifested in this condition?
- A. Ecchymosis and hematemesis
- B. Weight loss and alopecia
- C. Weakness and activity intolerance
- D. Sore throat and fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ecchymosis and hematemesis. These findings are often manifested in a client receiving antineoplastic drugs due to their potential side effects, including increased bleeding tendencies. Choice B, weight loss, and alopecia are more commonly associated with the side effects of cancer itself rather than antineoplastic drugs. Choice C, weakness, and activity intolerance can be seen in cancer patients but are not specific to antineoplastic drug therapy. Choice D, sore throat, and fever are less likely to be directly related to antineoplastic drugs and are more often linked to infections or other conditions.
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