HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum ammonia level of 100 mcg/dl
- B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
- C. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
- D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 100 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated serum ammonia levels indicate significant liver dysfunction and an increased risk of worsening encephalopathy. Bilirubin level and prothrombin time are important in assessing liver function, but in the context of hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels take precedence as they directly contribute to neurological symptoms. Serum sodium level, though important, is not the primary concern when managing hepatic encephalopathy.
2. Which of the following are outcomes of an ectopic pregnancy EXCEPT?
- A. Tubal abortion
- B. Tubal rupture
- C. Intra-tubal bleeding
- D. Secondary abdominal pregnancy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. Common outcomes include tubal abortion (spontaneous termination of ectopic pregnancy within the fallopian tube), tubal rupture (rupture of the fallopian tube leading to internal bleeding), and intra-tubal bleeding. Secondary abdominal pregnancy, on the other hand, is a rare occurrence and not a typical outcome of an ectopic pregnancy. It involves the implantation of a fertilized egg in the peritoneal cavity rather than the uterus.
3. A client is prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl) for a trichomoniasis infection. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.
- B. Take the medication with food.
- C. Increase fluid intake to prevent kidney stones.
- D. Report any gastrointestinal upset to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Metronidazole (Flagyl) can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol, resulting in severe nausea, vomiting, and headache. Therefore, the client should be advised to avoid alcohol while taking this medication to prevent adverse effects. Avoiding alcohol is crucial to prevent these reactions and ensure the effectiveness of the treatment. The other options are not directly related to the specific medication or the condition being treated.
4. A woman who delivered a 9-pound baby via cesarean section under spinal anesthesia is recovering in the post-anesthesia care unit. Her fundus is firm at the umbilicus, and a continuous trickle of bright red blood with no clots is observed by the nurse. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Assess her blood pressure.
- B. Apply an ice pack to the perineum.
- C. Allow the infant to breastfeed.
- D. Massage the fundus vigorously.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, continuous bleeding despite a firm fundus suggests a possible laceration. The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to assess the woman's blood pressure. This helps determine the severity of blood loss and guides further interventions, such as identifying the need for additional assessments or interventions to control bleeding. Applying an ice pack to the perineum (choice B) would not address the ongoing bleeding issue. Allowing the infant to breastfeed (choice C) may not be safe if there is significant bleeding. Massaging the fundus vigorously (choice D) is contraindicated when there is continuous bleeding as it can worsen the bleeding or cause further harm.
5. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
- B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
- C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
- D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.