Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a 6-year-old recently diagnosed with asthma should be taught that symptoms of an acute episode of asthma are due to which physiological response?

• A. Inflammation of the mucous membrane and bronchospasm
• B. Increased mucus production and airway obstruction
• C. Hyperinflation of the lungs and alveolar collapse
• D. Bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation. During an acute asthma episode, bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation occur, leading to difficulty breathing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Inflammation of the mucous membrane and bronchospasm (Choice A) are part of the pathophysiology of asthma but do not fully explain the symptoms during an acute episode. Increased mucus production and airway obstruction (Choice B) are also seen in asthma but are not the primary cause of acute symptoms. Hyperinflation of the lungs and alveolar collapse (Choice C) are not typical features of an acute asthma episode.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with hypoglycemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Administer 15 grams of oral glucose
• C. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
• D. Administer a glucagon injection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating hypoglycemia to rapidly increase blood glucose levels. This choice is correct because in severe cases of hypoglycemia, when a client is admitted and unconscious or unable to swallow, intravenous administration of dextrose is crucial to quickly raise blood glucose levels. Option B, administering 15 grams of oral glucose, would be suitable for conscious clients with mild hypoglycemia who can swallow safely. Option C, rechecking blood glucose levels, should follow after immediate intervention to assess the response. Option D, administering a glucagon injection, is more suitable for cases where dextrose is not readily available or when the client does not respond to dextrose administration.

3. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. After starting medication therapy, the nurse notices the client has more energy, is giving away her belongings, and has an elevated mood. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Support the client by telling her what wonderful progress she is making.
• B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself.
• C. Reassure the client that the antidepressant drugs are apparently effective.
• D. Tell the client to keep her belongings because she will need them at discharge.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with major depressive disorder shows signs of increased energy, giving away belongings, and an elevated mood, it could indicate a shift towards suicidal behavior. Therefore, the best intervention for the nurse is to ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself. This is crucial to assess the client's risk for suicide and provide necessary interventions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the potential risk of harm to the client and do not prioritize the immediate assessment required in this situation.

4. In a client with heart failure receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix), which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
• B. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl
• C. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
• D. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low and concerning in a client receiving digoxin and furosemide. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Therefore, immediate intervention is necessary to prevent complications. The other options, serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L, blood glucose of 200 mg/dl, and serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl, are within normal limits and do not pose immediate risks to the client in this scenario.

5. A client with newly diagnosed hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications by a nurse. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. ‘I will reduce my salt intake to help manage my blood pressure.’
• B. ‘I will start exercising regularly to help control my blood pressure.’
• C. ‘I will avoid drinking alcohol to help manage my blood pressure.’
• D. ‘I will limit my caffeine intake to help control my blood pressure.’

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Limiting caffeine intake is a positive lifestyle modification for managing hypertension. The statement indicates that the client understands the importance of reducing caffeine intake. Choices A, B, and C all reflect appropriate lifestyle modifications for managing hypertension, indicating good understanding by the client.

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