Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing a 50 ml dose of 50% dextrose IV for a client with insulin shock. What is the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Dilute the dextrose in one liter of 0.9% Normal Saline solution.
• B. Mix the dextrose in a 50 ml piggyback for a total volume of 100 ml.
• C. Push the undiluted dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion.
• D. Ask the pharmacist to add the dextrose to a TPN solution.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct immediate intervention by the nurse in this situation is to push the undiluted 50% dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion. This is because in cases of insulin shock, where the client has dangerously low blood sugar levels, administering 50% dextrose directly into the bloodstream helps rapidly increase blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because diluting the dextrose in one liter of normal saline would delay the administration of glucose, which is needed urgently. Choice B is incorrect as mixing the dextrose in a piggyback solution would also delay the administration of the concentrated dextrose. Choice D is incorrect because adding dextrose to a TPN solution is not the immediate intervention needed to address the low blood sugar levels in a client experiencing insulin shock.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• D. Positive urine ketones

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L indicates metabolic acidosis in a client with DKA, requiring immediate intervention. In DKA, the body produces excess ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis, which is reflected by a low serum bicarbonate level. Correcting the low serum bicarbonate is crucial to normalize the metabolic acidosis and improve the client's condition. While elevated serum glucose (choice A) and urine ketones (choice D) are characteristic of DKA, addressing the metabolic acidosis takes precedence. Serum potassium (choice B) levels may also need monitoring and management, but correcting the acidosis is the priority to prevent complications like cardiovascular collapse.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with a small bowel obstruction who was hospitalized 24 hours ago. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. Hypoactive bowel sounds in the lower quadrant.
• B. Rebound tenderness in the upper quadrants.
• C. Tympany with percussion of the abdomen.
• D. Light-colored gastric aspirate via the nasogastric tube.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rebound tenderness in the upper quadrants may indicate peritonitis, which requires prompt medical attention. Hypoactive bowel sounds are expected in small bowel obstruction and would not be a priority over signs of peritonitis. Tympany with percussion is a normal finding and not a cause for immediate concern. Light-colored gastric aspirate could indicate various issues but is not as urgent as peritonitis.

4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of sepsis. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Temperature of 101.5°F
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• D. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg in a client with sepsis is concerning for septic shock, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Hypotension is a severe manifestation of sepsis that can lead to poor tissue perfusion and organ failure. While the other assessment findings such as an elevated temperature, increased heart rate, and respiratory rate are also common in sepsis, hypotension is particularly alarming as it indicates a critical state of shock and necessitates urgent medical attention.

5. A 26-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a simple goiter, and levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) is prescribed. Which symptoms indicate to the nurse that the prescribed dosage is too high for this client?

• A. Palpitations and shortness of breath
• B. Bradycardia and constipation
• C. Lethargy and lack of appetite
• D. Muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. An overdose of thyroid preparation generally manifests symptoms of an agitated state such as tremors, palpitations, shortness of breath, tachycardia, increased appetite, agitation, sweating, and diarrhea. Palpitations and shortness of breath are signs of excessive thyroid medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect symptoms for a dosage that is too high. Bradycardia and constipation, lethargy and lack of appetite, muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin are more indicative of hypothyroidism or an insufficient dosage of levothyroxine.

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