Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing a 50 ml dose of 50% dextrose IV for a client with insulin shock. What is the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Dilute the dextrose in one liter of 0.9% Normal Saline solution.
• B. Mix the dextrose in a 50 ml piggyback for a total volume of 100 ml.
• C. Push the undiluted dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion.
• D. Ask the pharmacist to add the dextrose to a TPN solution.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct immediate intervention by the nurse in this situation is to push the undiluted 50% dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion. This is because in cases of insulin shock, where the client has dangerously low blood sugar levels, administering 50% dextrose directly into the bloodstream helps rapidly increase blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because diluting the dextrose in one liter of normal saline would delay the administration of glucose, which is needed urgently. Choice B is incorrect as mixing the dextrose in a piggyback solution would also delay the administration of the concentrated dextrose. Choice D is incorrect because adding dextrose to a TPN solution is not the immediate intervention needed to address the low blood sugar levels in a client experiencing insulin shock.

2. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Barrel-shaped chest
• B. Use of accessory muscles
• C. Oxygen saturation of 85%
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 85% is significantly low for a client with COPD and requires immediate intervention to prevent hypoxemia. Oxygen saturation below 90% indicates poor oxygenation and poses a risk of tissue hypoxia, making it a critical finding that needs prompt attention. Barrel-shaped chest and inspiratory crackles are commonly seen in clients with COPD and do not necessitate immediate intervention. The use of accessory muscles may indicate increased work of breathing but does not pose the same level of immediate threat as severe hypoxemia.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.0
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is most concerning in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) as it indicates a high risk of bleeding, requiring immediate intervention. A high INR value suggests that the blood is taking longer to clot, putting the patient at an increased risk of hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) measures how long it takes for blood to clot, but the specific value of 15 seconds is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl indicates mild anemia and does not directly relate to the risk of bleeding associated with warfarin therapy. White blood cell count assesses immune function and infection risk, but it is not directly related to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

4. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later, the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention in this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. The client's drop in blood pressure to 60/40 mm Hg after nitroglycerin administration indicates hypotension, which may suggest a right ventricular infarction. Normal saline bolus helps to increase intravascular volume, improve cardiac output, and support blood pressure. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin would further decrease blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated as the client's heart is still beating, and there is no indication for CPR. Giving an antiemetic medication is not the priority in this situation where hypotension is the main concern.

5. A client is admitted for type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) and chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which breakfast selection by the client indicates effective learning?

• A. Scrambled eggs, bacon, one slice of whole wheat toast with butter and jam.
• B. Oatmeal with butter, artificial sweetener, and strawberries, and 6 ounces of coffee.
• C. Banana pancake with maple syrup, sausage links, half grapefruit, and low-fat milk.
• D. Orange juice, yogurt with berries, cold cereal with milk, bran muffin with margarine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Oatmeal with butter, artificial sweetener, and strawberries is a suitable choice for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease as it provides a balanced meal that helps manage blood sugar levels and kidney function. Choice A contains high saturated fats and added sugars from bacon, butter, and jam, which are not ideal for this client. Choice C includes high sugar content from maple syrup and pancake, which can negatively impact blood sugar levels. Choice D contains high sugar content from orange juice and cold cereal, which can lead to blood sugar spikes, not suitable for a client with diabetes and CKD.

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