Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL.
• B. Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L.
• C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg.
• D. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concerning sign of decreased renal perfusion and potential renal failure. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration of kidney function.\n\nChoice A (Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL) is elevated but not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B (Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L) reflects metabolic acidosis, which is expected in DKA but does not require immediate intervention. Choice C (Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg) is slightly elevated but not acutely concerning in the context of DKA.

2. A client who has been receiving chemotherapy for cancer has a platelet count of 20,000/mm3. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Apply ice packs to bruised areas.
• B. Encourage frequent oral hygiene.
• C. Avoid invasive procedures.
• D. Place the client in a private room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a platelet count of 20,000/mm3 due to chemotherapy is to avoid invasive procedures. Chemotherapy can cause a decrease in platelet count, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. By avoiding invasive procedures, the nurse helps reduce the risk of bleeding complications. Applying ice packs to bruised areas (Choice A) may further increase the risk of bleeding due to the pressure and potential trauma to the skin. Encouraging frequent oral hygiene (Choice B) is important for overall health but does not directly address the risk of bleeding associated with a low platelet count. Placing the client in a private room (Choice D) is not directly related to managing the platelet count and risk of bleeding; it is more about privacy and infection control, which are important but not the priority in this scenario.

3. The healthcare professional is planning a health fair to promote cancer awareness and prevention. Which activity is most likely to increase participation?

• A. offering free cancer screenings
• B. distributing pamphlets on cancer prevention
• C. hosting a guest speaker who is a cancer survivor
• D. providing informational booths on different types of cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering free cancer screenings is the most likely activity to increase participation in the health fair. Providing direct services such as screenings not only attracts participants but also promotes early detection, which is crucial in cancer prevention. Distributing pamphlets, hosting a guest speaker, or providing informational booths are informative but may not have the same impact in driving participation as the opportunity for free screenings.

4. The nurse is preparing a client for a scheduled surgical procedure. What client statement should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. I am very anxious about the surgery.
• B. I drank a glass of juice after midnight.
• C. I have an allergy to latex.
• D. I had nausea after my last surgery.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client's statement of drinking juice after midnight should be reported to the healthcare provider. Consuming liquids after midnight can increase the risk of aspiration during surgery under general anesthesia. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical to report for the client's safety during the surgical procedure. Anxiety about surgery, latex allergy, and postoperative nausea, although important for overall care, do not pose immediate risks during the surgical preparation as the intake of fluids does.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.
• C. Decreased urine output.
• D. Temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Decreased urine output in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires immediate intervention because it can indicate potential complications such as fluid overload or kidney dysfunction. Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing renal function and fluid balance in patients on TPN. A blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL is within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours could be a concern but may not be as urgent as addressing decreased urine output. A temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C) is slightly elevated but may not be directly related to TPN administration unless there are other symptoms of infection present.

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