Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention by the community health nurse is an example of a secondary level of prevention?

• A. providing a needle exchange program at a community mental health clinic
• B. developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus
• C. administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home
• D. initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease or condition in its early stages to prevent complications. In this case, administering influenza vaccines helps prevent the spread of the flu among vulnerable individuals. Choices A, B, and D are not examples of secondary prevention. Providing a needle exchange program (Choice A) is a harm reduction strategy (tertiary prevention). Developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus (Choice B) focuses on health promotion and primary prevention. Initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client (Choice D) is a measure to prevent further transmission of the disease but is more aligned with tertiary prevention.

2. The client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will weigh myself daily and report a weight gain of more than 2 pounds in 24 hours.
• B. I will take my diuretic medication in the morning.
• C. I will call my healthcare provider if I experience increased shortness of breath.
• D. I will drink at least 3 liters of fluid each day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Drinking at least 3 liters of fluid each day may be contraindicated for a client with CHF due to the risk of fluid overload. This can exacerbate heart failure symptoms and lead to complications. Options A, B, and C are all appropriate statements that demonstrate understanding of managing CHF and seeking appropriate medical attention when needed.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute renal failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg.
• B. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.
• C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of worsening renal function and requires immediate intervention. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate urine output is crucial to prevent further kidney damage and manage fluid balance. A high blood pressure reading (Option A) is concerning but may not require immediate intervention in this scenario as it could be due to the history of hypertension. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute (Option C) is slightly elevated but may not be the most critical finding at this moment. Nausea and vomiting (Option D) are important to assess but are not as urgent as addressing oliguria in a client with acute renal failure.

5. An older adult client visits the community health clinic and reports the onset of pain, redness, and swelling of the right eye. Which question is most important for the clinic nurse to ask the client?

• A. Do you have any discharge from the eye?
• B. Have you started any new prescriptions?
• C. Are all of your immunizations current?
• D. How often do you wash your hands?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important question for the nurse to ask the client is whether they have started any new prescriptions. New medications can have side effects that include eye issues, so it is crucial to determine if there is a potential link. Asking about discharge from the eye (Choice A) may be relevant but does not address the possibility of medication side effects. Inquiring about immunizations (Choice C) and handwashing frequency (Choice D) is important for overall health but is less directly related to the eye symptoms described by the client.

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