Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is being seen in a community clinic. The nurse notes that the client has not been taking their prescribed medication regularly. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?

• A. Educate the client on the importance of medication adherence
• B. Explore the reasons for non-adherence with the client
• C. Refer the client to a hypertension specialist
• D. Adjust the client's medication regimen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate initial intervention when a client is not adhering to prescribed medication is to explore the reasons for non-adherence with the client. Understanding the client's perspective can help identify barriers to adherence, such as side effects, cost, forgetfulness, or misunderstanding of the treatment. By addressing these reasons, the nurse can work collaboratively with the client to develop strategies to improve medication compliance. Educating the client on the importance of adherence (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after exploring the reasons for non-adherence. Referring the client to a hypertension specialist (Choice C) or adjusting the medication regimen (Choice D) should be considered after addressing the underlying reasons for non-adherence.

2. When the receptionist for the answering service offers to take a message, which nursing action is best for the nurse to take if a client is exhibiting an extrapyramidal reaction to psychotropic medications?

• A. Leave a detailed message about the client's condition.
• B. Tell the receptionist to have the healthcare provider return the phone call.
• C. Call another healthcare provider.
• D. Document the attempt to call the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best nursing action is to request a return call from the healthcare provider. When a client is experiencing an extrapyramidal reaction to psychotropic medications, it is crucial to prioritize the client's confidentiality and ensure the information is conveyed to the healthcare provider directly. Leaving a detailed message with a receptionist may compromise the confidentiality of the client's condition. Calling another healthcare provider may delay necessary intervention and continuity of care. Documenting the attempt to call is important for the nurse's records but does not address the immediate need to inform the healthcare provider about the client's condition.

3. After coronary artery bypass graft surgery, a male client is admitted to the coronary care unit. Which nursing diagnosis is of the highest priority?

• A. Ineffective breathing pattern.
• B. Impaired gas exchange.
• C. Acute pain.
• D. Risk for infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Impaired gas exchange is the highest priority nursing diagnosis because it directly impacts the client's oxygenation. Following coronary artery bypass graft surgery, ensuring adequate oxygen exchange is crucial for the client's recovery. Ineffective breathing pattern, although important, may not be as critical as impaired gas exchange in the immediate postoperative period. Acute pain, while significant, can be managed effectively with appropriate interventions and is not as emergent as addressing impaired gas exchange. Risk for infection is also a valid concern post-surgery, but ensuring optimal gas exchange takes precedence to prevent complications associated with inadequate oxygenation.

4. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Epigastric tenderness.
• B. Bowel sounds are hypoactive.
• C. The client reports sudden, severe abdominal pain.
• D. Bowel sounds are hyperactive.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sudden, severe abdominal pain can indicate a perforated ulcer, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Epigastric tenderness (choice A) may be expected in a client with peptic ulcer disease but does not necessarily require immediate intervention. Hypoactive bowel sounds (choice B) are concerning but not as urgent as sudden, severe abdominal pain. Hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are more indicative of conditions like gastroenteritis rather than a perforated ulcer, making it a less critical finding compared to sudden, severe abdominal pain.

5. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
• C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

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