Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg
• B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
• C. Heart rate of 72 beats per minute
• D. Temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute may indicate respiratory distress in a client with chest pain. In a client with a history of coronary artery disease presenting with chest pain, signs of respiratory distress can be an alarming finding. Blood pressure within the normal range (130/80 mm Hg), heart rate of 72 beats per minute, and a temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit are generally considered within normal limits and may not be as concerning in this context.

2. A client who has received treatment for kidney stones should be reminded to increase intake of which of the following?

• A. Tea
• B. Sodium
• C. Water
• D. Protein

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Water. Increasing water intake helps prevent the formation of new kidney stones by diluting the urine. Tea (Choice A) contains oxalates, which can contribute to kidney stone formation. Sodium (Choice B) should be limited to prevent the risk of certain types of kidney stones. Protein (Choice D) intake should be moderate as excessive protein consumption may increase the risk of kidney stones. Therefore, advising the client to increase water intake is the most appropriate recommendation to prevent the recurrence of kidney stones.

3. A healthcare professional assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern?

• A. Flaccid paralysis
• B. Pupils fixed and dilated
• C. Diminished spinal reflexes
• D. Reduced sensory responses

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pupils fixed and dilated. Fixed and dilated pupils are a critical neurological sign that indicates severe neurological damage or brain herniation, posing a significant concern for the patient's condition. Flaccid paralysis (choice A) typically indicates lower motor neuron injury, while diminished spinal reflexes (choice C) and reduced sensory responses (choice D) may suggest various neurological issues but are not as acutely concerning as fixed and dilated pupils in this scenario.

4. The nurse has been teaching a client with Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I use a sliding scale to adjust regular insulin to my sugar level.
• B. Since my eyesight is so bad, I ask the nurse to fill several syringes.
• C. I keep my regular insulin bottle in the refrigerator.
• D. I always make sure to shake the NPH bottle hard to mix it well.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shaking the NPH insulin bottle hard can cause air bubbles and affect dosing accuracy; it should be rolled gently instead.

5. What is the most effective nursing intervention to prevent atelectasis from developing in a postoperative client?

• A. Maintain adequate hydration
• B. Assist the client to turn, deep breathe, and cough
• C. Ambulate the client within 12 hours
• D. Splint the incision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client to turn, deep breathe, and cough. This intervention helps to expand the lungs and prevent atelectasis in postoperative clients. Maintaining adequate hydration is important for overall health but is not the most effective intervention for preventing atelectasis. Ambulating the client within 12 hours is beneficial for preventing complications after surgery, but it may not be as directly effective in preventing atelectasis as turning, deep breathing, and coughing. Splinting the incision is important for postoperative care, but it does not specifically address the prevention of atelectasis.

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