HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Practice Exam
1. A client is lactose intolerant, and a nurse is reinforcing teaching. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should increase the fiber in your diet.
- B. You should increase the calories in your diet.
- C. You should decrease the dairy products in your diet.
- D. You should decrease the amount of vitamin D in your diet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement for a client who is lactose intolerant is to decrease dairy products since lactose intolerant individuals should avoid dairy to prevent symptoms like bloating, diarrhea, and gas. Increasing fiber (Choice A) or calories (Choice B) is not directly related to lactose intolerance. Decreasing vitamin D (Choice D) is not necessary as lactose intolerance is about the sugar in dairy, not vitamin D.
2. After a client has an enteral feeding tube inserted, the most accurate method for verification of placement is
- A. Abdominal x-ray
- B. Auscultation
- C. Flushing tube with saline
- D. Aspiration for gastric contents
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After the insertion of an enteral feeding tube, the most accurate method for verifying its placement is by aspirating gastric contents. This method ensures that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach. Abdominal x-ray can provide additional confirmation but is not as immediate or practical. Auscultation and flushing the tube with saline are not as reliable as aspirating gastric contents for verifying proper placement of an enteral feeding tube.
3. During an assessment on a client in congestive heart failure, what is most likely to be revealed upon auscultation of the heart?
- A. S3 ventricular gallop
- B. Apical click
- C. Systolic murmur
- D. Split S2
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: S3 ventricular gallop. An S3 sound is a common finding in congestive heart failure due to fluid overload in the heart. It is associated with decreased ventricular compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. A systolic murmur may be heard in conditions like mitral regurgitation but is not specific to congestive heart failure. A split S2 is associated with conditions like pulmonary hypertension, not congestive heart failure.
4. Which of these clients, all in the terminal stage of cancer, is least appropriate to suggest the use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with a pump?
- A. A young adult with a history of Down syndrome
- B. A teenager who reads at a 4th-grade level
- C. An elderly client with numerous arthritic nodules on the hands
- D. A preschooler with intermittent alertness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, a preschooler with intermittent alertness. This client may not have the cognitive ability to effectively use a PCA pump due to their age and alertness level. They may not understand how to self-administer the analgesia. Choices A, B, and C are more appropriate candidates for PCA as they are likely to have better comprehension and ability to operate the PCA pump compared to a preschooler with intermittent alertness.
5. A client who has received treatment for kidney stones should be reminded to increase intake of which of the following?
- A. Tea
- B. Sodium
- C. Water
- D. Protein
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Water. Increasing water intake helps prevent the formation of new kidney stones by diluting the urine. Tea (Choice A) contains oxalates, which can contribute to kidney stone formation. Sodium (Choice B) should be limited to prevent the risk of certain types of kidney stones. Protein (Choice D) intake should be moderate as excessive protein consumption may increase the risk of kidney stones. Therefore, advising the client to increase water intake is the most appropriate recommendation to prevent the recurrence of kidney stones.
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