HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Practice Exam
1. A client is lactose intolerant, and a nurse is reinforcing teaching. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should increase the fiber in your diet.
- B. You should increase the calories in your diet.
- C. You should decrease the dairy products in your diet.
- D. You should decrease the amount of vitamin D in your diet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement for a client who is lactose intolerant is to decrease dairy products since lactose intolerant individuals should avoid dairy to prevent symptoms like bloating, diarrhea, and gas. Increasing fiber (Choice A) or calories (Choice B) is not directly related to lactose intolerance. Decreasing vitamin D (Choice D) is not necessary as lactose intolerance is about the sugar in dairy, not vitamin D.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 350 mg/dL. Which of these actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer insulin as ordered
- B. Encourage the client to drink fluids
- C. Notify the healthcare provider
- D. Recheck the blood glucose level in 30 minutes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering insulin as ordered is the priority action when a client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 350 mg/dL. Insulin helps to lower the high blood glucose level and prevent complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis. Encouraging the client to drink fluids may be beneficial but does not address the immediate need to lower the blood glucose level. Notifying the healthcare provider and rechecking the blood glucose level can be important steps but should come after administering insulin to address the high glucose level promptly.
3. A nurse is caring for four clients. The nurse should observe which of the following clients for a risk of vitamin B6 deficiency?
- A. A client who has cystic fibrosis
- B. A client who has chronic alcohol use disorder
- C. A client who takes phenytoin for a seizure disorder
- D. A client who is prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chronic alcohol use disorder can lead to vitamin B6 deficiency due to impaired absorption and increased excretion of the vitamin. While clients with cystic fibrosis may be at risk for fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies, such as vitamins A, D, E, and K, they are not specifically at high risk for vitamin B6 deficiency. Clients taking phenytoin are at risk for folate deficiency, not vitamin B6. Clients prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis are at risk for vitamin D deficiency, not vitamin B6.
4. The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?
- A. Diminished bowel sounds
- B. Loss of appetite
- C. A cold, pale lower leg
- D. Tachypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is the most concerning finding as it indicates poor blood flow, potentially suggesting a serious circulatory problem that requires immediate attention. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea may be relevant but are not as indicative of a critical circulatory issue as a cold, pale lower leg.
5. A client is receiving treatment for hypertension. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?
- A. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute
- B. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
- C. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
- D. A temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute is within normal limits; however, changes in breathing patterns can indicate respiratory distress, which is concerning, especially in a client receiving treatment for hypertension. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute may not be alarming if the client is at rest. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range for a healthy adult. A temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit is also considered normal, showing no immediate cause for concern in this scenario.
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