HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam
1. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before the procedure?
- A. Serum creatinine
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- C. Serum potassium
- D. Serum glucose
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Before a CT scan with contrast, the nurse should review the serum creatinine level. This is crucial in patients with CKD because contrast agents can potentially worsen kidney function and lead to contrast-induced nephropathy. Monitoring serum creatinine helps assess kidney function and determine the risk of complications. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is another marker of kidney function, but serum creatinine is a more specific indicator. Serum potassium levels are important in assessing electrolyte balance but are not directly related to the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy. Serum glucose levels are not typically a primary concern before a CT scan with contrast in a patient with CKD.
2. A woman who takes pyridostigmine for myasthenia gravis (MG) arrives at the emergency department complaining of extreme muscle weakness. Her adult daughter tells the nurse that since yesterday her mother has been unable to smile. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Uncontrollable drooling.
- B. Inability to raise voice.
- C. Tingling of extremities.
- D. Eyelid drooping.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Uncontrollable drooling can be a sign of a myasthenic crisis, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Drooling indicates difficulty in swallowing, which can lead to aspiration and respiratory compromise. Inability to raise voice (choice B) and tingling of extremities (choice C) are not typically associated with myasthenic crisis. Although eyelid drooping (choice D) is a common symptom of myasthenia gravis, it is not as urgent as uncontrollable drooling in indicating a potential crisis.
3. For the past 24 hours, an antidiarrheal agent, diphenoxylate, has been administered to a bedridden, older client with infectious gastroenteritis. Which finding requires the nurse to take further action?
- A. Tented skin turgor
- B. Decreased bowel sounds
- C. Persistent diarrhea
- D. Dehydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tented skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, which can be exacerbated by the use of antidiarrheals in clients with gastroenteritis. In dehydration, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less resilient when pinched. Therefore, the nurse should take immediate action upon noticing tented skin turgor to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreased bowel sounds, persistent diarrhea, and dehydration are expected findings in a client with gastroenteritis who has been administered an antidiarrheal agent.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure?
- A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- B. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
- C. Potassium of 6.0 mEq/L
- D. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium of 6.0 mEq/L. A potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is dangerously high in a client with CKD, and it should be reported before hemodialysis to prevent cardiac complications. High potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not the most critical values to report before hemodialysis. While a serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is slightly elevated, it is not as urgent as a level of 6.0 mEq/L in this context. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl and blood glucose of 200 mg/dl are important parameters to monitor but are not as immediately concerning before hemodialysis compared to a high potassium level.
5. A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction
- B. Administer a laxative to stimulate bowel movement
- C. Increase fluid intake to soften stool
- D. Perform a digital rectal examination
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. In this scenario, the client's presentation of frequent small amounts of liquid stool after a period of no bowel movement suggests a possible impaction. By performing a digital examination, the nurse can assess for the presence of a blockage that may be causing the symptoms. Administering a laxative (Choice B) without assessing for impaction can worsen the situation. Increasing fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial for bowel health but may not address the immediate issue of a potential impaction. Performing a digital rectal examination (Choice D) is similar to Choice A but is more focused on assessing the rectum itself rather than checking for an impaction.
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