Nursing Elites

1. A young adult male is admitted to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). His pH is 7.25, HCO3 is 12 mEq/L, and blood glucose is 310 mg/dl. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Infuse sodium chloride 0.9% (normal saline)
• B. Prepare an emergency dose of glucagon
• C. Determine the last time the client ate
• D. Check urine for ketone bodies with a dipstick

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In DKA, restoring fluid balance with sodium chloride is a priority to address the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances present in this condition. Choice B, preparing an emergency dose of glucagon, is incorrect because DKA is characterized by insulin deficiency, not glucagon deficiency. Choice C, determining the last time the client ate, is not the immediate priority in managing DKA. Choice D, checking urine for ketone bodies with a dipstick, may help confirm the diagnosis of DKA but is not the most critical intervention at this time.

2. The unit clerk reports to the charge nurse that a healthcare provider has written several prescriptions that are illegible and it appears the healthcare provider used several unapproved abbreviations in the prescriptions. What actions should the charge nurse take?

• A. Call the healthcare provider who wrote the prescription
• B. Attempt to clarify the prescriptions with the pharmacist
• C. Administer the medications as prescribed
• D. Ask another healthcare provider for clarification

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to take is to call the healthcare provider who wrote the illegible prescriptions. It is crucial to clarify illegible prescriptions directly with the provider to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors. Option B, attempting to clarify with the pharmacist, may lead to misinterpretation and is not the recommended first step. Administering the medications as prescribed without clarity can jeopardize patient safety, making option C incorrect. Asking another healthcare provider for clarification (option D) may not be effective as the responsibility lies with the provider who wrote the prescription.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
• B. Subcutaneous emphysema
• C. Crepitus around the insertion site
• D. Drainage of 50 ml per hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema is the correct answer as it is most concerning in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. It may indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% is acceptable and does not require immediate intervention. Crepitus around the insertion site may be a normal finding after chest tube placement and does not necessarily indicate a complication. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for a chest tube and does not require immediate intervention.

4. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
• B. Administer lactulose as prescribed.
• C. Monitor the client's weight daily.
• D. Assess the client's neurological status.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering lactulose is the first priority in managing a client with cirrhosis to reduce ammonia levels and prevent worsening hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the intestines and promotes its excretion through the stool. This intervention is crucial in preventing the development or progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Administering a diuretic (Choice A) may be necessary to manage ascites, but it is not the priority over lactulose in this scenario. Monitoring the client's weight (Choice C) is important to assess fluid retention but is not the first intervention required. Assessing the client's neurological status (Choice D) is essential in cirrhosis, but administering lactulose takes precedence to prevent hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A client with chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and a new onset of confusion. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain a neurological assessment.
• B. Administer oxygen therapy.
• C. Monitor the client's urine output.
• D. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a neurological assessment. In a client with chronic heart failure presenting with confusion, the priority is to assess neurological status to rule out potential causes such as hypoxia or other complications. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice B) is important but assessing the neurological status takes precedence in this scenario. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) and obtaining an ECG (Choice D) may be necessary but are not the initial priority when a client presents with confusion alongside shortness of breath.

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