Nursing Elites

1. A nurse plans to call the healthcare provider to report an 0600 serum potassium level of 2 mEq/L or mmol/L (SI), but the charge nurse tells the nurse that the healthcare provider does not like to receive early morning calls and will make rounds later in the morning. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider immediately to report the laboratory value regardless of the advice.
• B. Document the finding and report it when the healthcare provider makes rounds.
• C. Notify the charge nurse that you are following the chain of command.
• D. Administer a potassium supplement and notify the provider later.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A nurse should contact the healthcare provider immediately to report a critically low potassium level of 2 mEq/L. Potassium levels below the normal range can lead to life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Prompt notification is essential to ensure timely intervention and prevent harm to the patient. Option B is incorrect as delaying reporting such a critical value can jeopardize patient safety. Option C is not the priority in this situation; the focus should be on patient care. Option D is dangerous and inappropriate as administering a potassium supplement without healthcare provider's guidance can be harmful, especially with a critically low level.

2. A female client reports that she drank a liter of a solution to cleanse her intestines but vomited immediately. How many ml of fluid intake should the nurse document?

• A. 240 ml
• B. 500 ml
• C. 760 ml
• D. 1000 ml

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 760 ml. After vomiting 240 ml (1 cup), the nurse should document the remaining 760 ml as the fluid intake. Choice A (240 ml) is the amount vomited, not the total intake. Choice B (500 ml) and Choice D (1000 ml) are the total intake, not considering the vomiting.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a hemodialysis session. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure?

• A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 40 mg/dl
• C. Serum potassium of 6.0 mEq/L
• D. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dl

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is dangerously high for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for hemodialysis. High potassium levels can lead to cardiac complications such as arrhythmias. Therefore, it is crucial to report this value to the healthcare provider before the procedure to prevent any potential serious complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in the context of preparing for a hemodialysis session. Serum potassium levels above 6.0 mEq/L require immediate attention to ensure patient safety.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is experiencing chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An electrocardiogram (ECG) should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of myocardial infarction and chest pain. An ECG provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity, helping to identify changes indicative of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Chest X-ray (Choice B) is not the initial diagnostic test for assessing chest pain related to myocardial infarction. Arterial blood gases (Choice C) are used to assess oxygenation and acid-base balance but are not the primary diagnostic test for myocardial infarction. An echocardiogram (Choice D) may provide valuable information about cardiac structure and function, but it is not the first-line diagnostic test for acute chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction.

5. A male client with cancer, who is receiving antineoplastic drugs, is admitted to the hospital. What findings are most often manifested in this condition?

• A. Ecchymosis and hematemesis
• B. Weight loss and alopecia
• C. Weakness and activity intolerance
• D. Sore throat and fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ecchymosis and hematemesis. These findings are often manifested in a client receiving antineoplastic drugs due to their potential side effects, including increased bleeding tendencies. Choice B, weight loss, and alopecia are more commonly associated with the side effects of cancer itself rather than antineoplastic drugs. Choice C, weakness, and activity intolerance can be seen in cancer patients but are not specific to antineoplastic drug therapy. Choice D, sore throat, and fever are less likely to be directly related to antineoplastic drugs and are more often linked to infections or other conditions.

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