Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing the thorax and lungs of a client who is experiencing respiratory difficulty. Which finding is most indicative of respiratory distress?

• A. Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
• B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
• C. Downward movement of diaphragm with inspiration
• D. A pulse oximetry reading of SpO2 95%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle suggest that the client is using accessory muscles to breathe, which is a clear sign of respiratory distress. This finding indicates that the client is working harder to breathe, typically seen in conditions like asthma, COPD, or respiratory failure. Choices B, C, and D are not the most indicative of respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min falls within the normal range. Downward movement of the diaphragm with inspiration is a normal finding indicating effective diaphragmatic breathing. A pulse oximetry reading of SpO2 95% is within the normal range and does not necessarily indicate respiratory distress.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing shortness of breath and has a prescription for oxygen therapy. What is the maximum amount of oxygen the nurse should administer without a healthcare provider's order?

• A. 2 liters per minute
• B. 4 liters per minute
• C. 6 liters per minute
• D. 8 liters per minute

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 4 liters per minute. Without a healthcare provider's order, the nurse should administer a maximum of 4 liters per minute of oxygen to prevent carbon dioxide retention in COPD clients. Higher flow rates can lead to oxygen toxicity and worsen the client's condition. Choices A, C, and D exceed the safe limit for oxygen administration without a healthcare provider's order.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which laboratory value should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dl
• B. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
• C. Potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• D. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dl

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high, a condition known as hyperkalemia, and requires immediate intervention to prevent cardiac complications. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making it crucial to notify the healthcare provider promptly. Choices A, B, and D do not indicate immediate life-threatening conditions. Elevated serum creatinine levels are expected in CKD, a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dl is within a reasonable range, and a blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl is not acutely concerning in this context.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who has thick, tenacious secretions. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site
• B. Dry and cracked tracheostomy site
• C. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site
• D. Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube is the most concerning finding in a client with a tracheostomy and thick secretions. This can lead to airway obstruction, which requires immediate intervention to maintain a patent airway. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema but does not pose an immediate threat to the airway. A dry and cracked tracheostomy site may require interventions to promote healing but is not as urgent as mucous plugging. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site could indicate infection or impaired circulation, which should be addressed but does not pose the same immediate risk as airway obstruction.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?

• A. ‘I will take my medication in the morning before breakfast.’
• B. ‘I should avoid eating foods high in potassium.’
• C. ‘I should change positions slowly to avoid dizziness.’
• D. ‘I should avoid abrupt discontinuation of the medication.’

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: ‘I should avoid eating foods high in potassium.’ This statement indicates a misunderstanding as beta-blockers do not typically affect potassium levels. The other choices (A, C, and D) are all appropriate statements for a client prescribed a beta-blocker. Choice A shows understanding of the timing of medication administration, choice C addresses orthostatic hypotension concerns, and choice D highlights the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication to prevent adverse effects.

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