a client with a history of bipolar disorder is exhibiting symptoms of mania which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement
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HESI RN

Mental Health HESI Quizlet

1. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is exhibiting symptoms of mania. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder is experiencing symptoms of mania, the most appropriate intervention for the nurse is to limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior. This approach helps in managing the manic episode by preventing further escalation. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice A) may not be effective during the acute phase of mania, as the client may have difficulty focusing or following group discussions. Providing a calm and structured environment (Choice B) is beneficial, but setting firm limits is crucial to managing the impulsivity and risky behaviors associated with mania. Promoting self-care practices (Choice D) is important, but during a manic episode, setting limits and reducing stimuli take precedence over hygiene practices.

2. During the admission assessment, a female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room. When the RN notes a discrepancy between the client’s verbal and nonverbal communication, what action should the RN take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a client assessment, noting and documenting nonverbal messages is important as it captures the full context of the client’s communication. Nonverbal cues can often reveal underlying emotions or issues that may not be expressed verbally. Asking the client’s husband to interpret the discrepancy (Choice B) may not be appropriate as it could potentially breach the client's privacy and trust. Ignoring nonverbal behavior (Choice C) can result in missing important cues that could impact the care provided. Integrating verbal and nonverbal messages (Choice D) is beneficial, but the initial step should be to pay close attention and document the nonverbal messages to fully understand the client's communication.

3. A client with depression remains in bed most of the day and declines activities. Which nursing problem has the greatest priority for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Refusal to address nutritional needs.' When a client with depression remains in bed and declines activities, addressing their refusal to address nutritional needs is of utmost priority. Nutritional needs are essential for physical health and overall well-being. Inadequate nutrition can worsen the client's physical health, impact their mood, and hinder the effectiveness of treatment. Option A, 'Loss of interest in diversional activity,' while important, is not as critical as addressing nutritional needs for immediate physical well-being. Option B, 'Social isolation,' is a significant concern but addressing nutritional needs takes precedence due to its direct impact on physical health. Option D, 'Low self-esteem,' is a valid concern but does not take priority over addressing the client's refusal to meet their nutritional needs for immediate health benefits.

4. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement for a male client with schizophrenia who is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Echolalia, the constant repetition of what others are saying, can be disruptive to the therapeutic environment. The most appropriate intervention is to escort the client to his room. This action provides the client with a private space where he can engage in the behavior without disturbing other clients. Avoiding acknowledgment of the behavior (Choice A) may not address the issue and could lead to increased annoyance among other clients. Isolating the client (Choice B) may have negative psychological effects and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for safety concerns. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be considered only as a last resort and if other de-escalation techniques have been unsuccessful.

5. A male adolescent was admitted to the unit two days ago for depression. When the mental health nurse tries to interview the client to establish rapport, he becomes very irritated and sarcastic. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering to play a game of cards with the adolescent is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation. Engaging in an activity like playing a game can help establish rapport with the adolescent as it provides a more relaxed and non-threatening environment for communication. This approach can help the adolescent feel more comfortable and open up, as adolescents often find it easier to communicate when involved in an activity. Reporting the behavior to the next shift, documenting the behavior, or planning to talk with the client the next day do not directly address the immediate need to establish rapport and improve communication with the adolescent.

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