Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is exhibiting symptoms of mania. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• B. Provide a calm and structured environment.
• C. Limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior.
• D. Promote self-care and hygiene practices.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder is experiencing symptoms of mania, the most appropriate intervention for the nurse is to limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior. This approach helps in managing the manic episode by preventing further escalation. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice A) may not be effective during the acute phase of mania, as the client may have difficulty focusing or following group discussions. Providing a calm and structured environment (Choice B) is beneficial, but setting firm limits is crucial to managing the impulsivity and risky behaviors associated with mania. Promoting self-care practices (Choice D) is important, but during a manic episode, setting limits and reducing stimuli take precedence over hygiene practices.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to provide medication education to a client who has just been prescribed an antipsychotic medication. What should the healthcare professional include in the teaching plan?

• A. “You should have regular eye exams.”
• B. “It is important to avoid caffeine while on this medication.”
• C. “You may experience dry mouth and blurred vision.”
• D. “You should increase your intake of vitamin C to prevent side effects.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Antipsychotic medications often have anticholinergic side effects like dry mouth and blurred vision. Teaching the client about these potential side effects is essential for their understanding and management. Regular eye exams (Choice A) are not specifically related to antipsychotic medications. While avoiding caffeine (Choice B) might be a general good practice, it is not a specific side effect of antipsychotic medications. Increasing vitamin C intake (Choice D) is not a standard recommendation for preventing antipsychotic medication side effects.

3. A teenager who has lost 20 pounds in the last three months is admitted to the hospital with hypotension and tachycardia. The client reports irregular menses and hair loss. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client plan of care?

• A. Implement behavior modification therapy.
• B. Initiate caloric and nutritional therapy.
• C. Evaluate the client for low self-esteem.
• D. Record daily weights and graph trends.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Initiating caloric and nutritional therapy is the most important intervention for this client due to the significant weight loss and presenting symptoms of hypotension, tachycardia, irregular menses, and hair loss. This intervention aims to address the physical effects of malnutrition and support the client's overall health. Behavior modification therapy (Choice A) may be beneficial in the long term to address underlying issues, but addressing the immediate nutritional needs is a priority. Evaluating the client for low self-esteem (Choice C) is important for holistic care but addressing the physical health concerns takes precedence. Recording daily weights and graphing trends (Choice D) is essential for monitoring progress but does not address the urgent need for nutritional support in this acute situation.

4. A client with depression and a history of a recent suicide attempt is being discharged from the hospital. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further follow-up?

• A. “I will take my medication as prescribed.”
• B. “I have a plan to attend weekly therapy sessions.”
• C. “I feel that I am completely recovered now.”
• D. “I will avoid people who make me feel worse.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client with depression and a history of a recent suicide attempt states, “I feel that I am completely recovered now,” it indicates a need for further follow-up. This statement suggests a potential lack of insight into the ongoing nature of depression and may lead to discontinuation of necessary treatment and support. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate positive and proactive attitudes towards managing depression and suicidal ideation, indicating a willingness to engage in treatment, therapy, and self-care practices.

5. A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) engages in repetitive hand washing that lasts for several hours. Which strategy should the nurse use to manage this behavior?

• A. Encourage the client to continue the behavior to alleviate anxiety.
• B. Establish a routine schedule for hand washing.
• C. Gradually reduce the amount of time spent on the behavior.
• D. Ignore the behavior as much as possible.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), it's crucial to gradually reduce the compulsive behavior to help the client learn to manage anxiety in a structured manner. Encouraging the client to continue the behavior (Choice A) would reinforce the cycle of compulsions. While establishing a routine schedule (Choice B) may provide some structure, it doesn't address the core issue of excessive hand washing. Ignoring the behavior (Choice D) may lead to worsening symptoms and does not help the client in managing their OCD effectively.

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