HESI RN
Mental Health HESI Quizlet
1. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is exhibiting symptoms of mania. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
- B. Provide a calm and structured environment.
- C. Limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior.
- D. Promote self-care and hygiene practices.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder is experiencing symptoms of mania, the most appropriate intervention for the nurse is to limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior. This approach helps in managing the manic episode by preventing further escalation. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice A) may not be effective during the acute phase of mania, as the client may have difficulty focusing or following group discussions. Providing a calm and structured environment (Choice B) is beneficial, but setting firm limits is crucial to managing the impulsivity and risky behaviors associated with mania. Promoting self-care practices (Choice D) is important, but during a manic episode, setting limits and reducing stimuli take precedence over hygiene practices.
2. A male client with schizophrenia is admitted to the mental health unit after abruptly stopping his prescription for ziprasidone (Geodon) one month ago. Which question is most important for the RN to ask the client?
- A. Have you lost interest in the activities you once enjoyed?
- B. Is your ability to think or concentrate reduced?
- C. How many consecutive hours do you sleep at night?
- D. Do you hear sounds or voices that others do not hear?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the most critical question for the RN to ask the client relates to hallucinations. Hallucinations, such as hearing sounds or voices others do not hear, are a hallmark symptom of schizophrenia. This inquiry is vital for assessing the presence of psychotic symptoms and the potential relapse of the client's condition. Choices A, B, and C, although important in assessing overall mental health, do not directly address the core symptomatology of schizophrenia or the potential impact of discontinuing antipsychotic medication abruptly.
3. A client is being treated with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Constipation and urinary retention.
- B. Increased appetite and weight loss.
- C. Sedation and blurred vision.
- D. Insomnia and dry mouth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation and urinary retention. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are known to have anticholinergic side effects, which include constipation and urinary retention. These side effects occur due to the inhibition of cholinergic receptors, leading to decreased gastrointestinal motility and relaxation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight loss, sedation, blurred vision, insomnia, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the use of TCAs. Monitoring for constipation and urinary retention is essential to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety.
4. When preparing to administer a domestic violence screening tool to a female client, which statement should the RN provide?
- A. If domestic abuse is happening, I need to ask these questions.
- B. State law requires that all clients are screened for domestic violence.
- C. It is essential for us to know if you are experiencing any domestic abuse.
- D. All clients are screened for domestic abuse because it is common in our society.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because screening all clients for domestic abuse helps normalize the process and reduces the stigma, encouraging honest responses. Choice A is not the best option as it may come off as accusatory and can deter the client from being open. Choice B, mentioning state law, may create fear or pressure, affecting the client's response. Choice C focuses on the healthcare provider's needs rather than emphasizing the client's well-being, which may not facilitate open communication.
5. A client is being educated by a healthcare professional about initiating a prescribed abstinence therapy using Disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client acknowledge understanding?
- A. Admit to others that they are a substance abuser.
- B. Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours before taking the first dose.
- C. Attend monthly Alcoholics Anonymous meetings.
- D. Completely abstain from heroin or cocaine use.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: B: Before starting Disulfiram therapy, it is crucial for clients to be alcohol-free for a minimum of 12 hours to prevent adverse reactions. A: Admitting substance abuse is important, but it is not directly linked to the initiation of Disulfiram therapy. C: Attending Alcoholics Anonymous meetings is beneficial for support but not a specific requirement for starting Disulfiram. D: The focus of Disulfiram therapy is on alcohol abstinence, so abstaining from heroin or cocaine is not directly related to this medication.
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