Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is exhibiting symptoms of mania. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• B. Provide a calm and structured environment.
• C. Limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior.
• D. Promote self-care and hygiene practices.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder is experiencing symptoms of mania, the most appropriate intervention for the nurse is to limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior. This approach helps in managing the manic episode by preventing further escalation. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice A) may not be effective during the acute phase of mania, as the client may have difficulty focusing or following group discussions. Providing a calm and structured environment (Choice B) is beneficial, but setting firm limits is crucial to managing the impulsivity and risky behaviors associated with mania. Promoting self-care practices (Choice D) is important, but during a manic episode, setting limits and reducing stimuli take precedence over hygiene practices.

2. What assessment questions should the nurse ask when attempting to determine a teenager’s mental health resilience? Select all that apply.

• A. How did you cope when your father deployed with the Army for a year in Iraq?
• B. Who did you go to for advice while your father was away for a year in Iraq?
• C. How do you feel about talking to a mental health counselor?
• D. Where do you see yourself in 10 years?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The question 'How do you feel about talking to a mental health counselor?' is the most appropriate to assess the teenager's mental health resilience as it directly addresses their willingness to seek help and cope effectively. Choices A and B focus on coping mechanisms during a specific event, which may not reflect the teenager's overall resilience. Choice D is more related to future aspirations rather than assessing current mental health resilience.

3. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

4. A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) engages in repetitive hand washing that lasts for several hours. Which strategy should the nurse use to manage this behavior?

• A. Encourage the client to continue the behavior to alleviate anxiety.
• B. Establish a routine schedule for hand washing.
• C. Gradually reduce the amount of time spent on the behavior.
• D. Ignore the behavior as much as possible.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), it's crucial to gradually reduce the compulsive behavior to help the client learn to manage anxiety in a structured manner. Encouraging the client to continue the behavior (Choice A) would reinforce the cycle of compulsions. While establishing a routine schedule (Choice B) may provide some structure, it doesn't address the core issue of excessive hand washing. Ignoring the behavior (Choice D) may lead to worsening symptoms and does not help the client in managing their OCD effectively.

5. When developing a plan of care for a client admitted to the psychiatric unit following aspiration of a caustic material related to a suicide attempt, which nursing problem has the highest priority?

• A. Impaired comfort.
• B. Risk for injury.
• C. Ineffective breathing pattern.
• D. Ineffective coping.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ineffective breathing pattern is the highest priority nursing problem in this scenario because aspiration of a caustic material can lead to serious airway and respiratory issues. This poses an immediate threat to the client's life and requires urgent intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation. The other options, such as Impaired comfort, Risk for injury, and Ineffective coping, are important but are secondary concerns compared to the critical nature of respiratory compromise in this situation.

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