HESI RN
Mental Health HESI Quizlet
1. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is exhibiting symptoms of mania. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
- B. Provide a calm and structured environment.
- C. Limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior.
- D. Promote self-care and hygiene practices.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder is experiencing symptoms of mania, the most appropriate intervention for the nurse is to limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior. This approach helps in managing the manic episode by preventing further escalation. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice A) may not be effective during the acute phase of mania, as the client may have difficulty focusing or following group discussions. Providing a calm and structured environment (Choice B) is beneficial, but setting firm limits is crucial to managing the impulsivity and risky behaviors associated with mania. Promoting self-care practices (Choice D) is important, but during a manic episode, setting limits and reducing stimuli take precedence over hygiene practices.
2. During an annual physical at a corporate clinic, a male employee tells the nurse that his high-stress job is causing trouble in his personal life. He further explains that he often gets so angry while driving to and from work that he has considered “getting even” with other drivers. How should the nurse respond?
- A. “Anger is contagious and could result in a major confrontation.”
- B. “Try not to let your anger cause you to act impulsively.”
- C. “Expressing your anger to a stranger could result in an unsafe situation.”
- D. “It sounds as if there are many situations that make you feel angry.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the client to manage their anger and avoid impulsive actions, as stated in choice B. This approach helps the individual recognize the potential consequences of acting on their anger impulsively. Choice A is not the best response because it focuses on the contagious nature of anger rather than addressing the individual's behavior. Choice C is incorrect as it only highlights the potential dangers of expressing anger to a stranger without providing guidance on managing the underlying issue. Choice D acknowledges the client's feelings but does not offer practical advice on how to address the anger and potential impulsive actions.
3. The nurse is using the CAGE questionnaire as a screening tool for a client who is seeking help because his wife said he had a drinking problem. What information should the nurse explore in-depth with the client based on this screening tool?
- A. Consumption, liver enzymes, gastrointestinal complaints, and bleeding.
- B. Minimizing drinking, frequently missing family events, guilt about drinking, and amount of daily intake.
- C. Cancer screening results, anger, gastritis, daily alcohol intake.
- D. Efforts to cut down, annoyance with questions, guilt, drinking as an “Eye-opener.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The CAGE questionnaire is a screening tool for alcohol use disorder. Each letter in CAGE represents a key question: Cutting down, Annoyance by criticisms, Guilty feelings, and Eye-openers. These questions help assess problematic drinking behaviors and can provide valuable insights into the client's alcohol consumption habits. Choices A, B, and C do not directly align with the specific areas of inquiry covered by the CAGE questionnaire, making them incorrect. Therefore, the nurse should focus on exploring the client's efforts to cut down, annoyance with questions, feelings of guilt, and the use of alcohol as an “Eye-opener” based on this screening tool.
4. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is receiving a new prescription for fluoxetine (Prozac). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this medication?
- A. “I should begin feeling less anxious within a few weeks.”
- B. “The drug will help me control my compulsive behaviors.”
- C. “I will need to have a weekly blood test to check my liver function.”
- D. “I should avoid foods that contain tyramine while taking this medication.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fluoxetine, an SSRI, can help manage symptoms of OCD by assisting in controlling compulsive behaviors rather than directly reducing anxiety. The improvement in symptoms usually occurs over a few weeks. Choice A is incorrect as it provides a timeframe for anxiety improvement, which is not the primary goal of fluoxetine in OCD treatment. Choice C is incorrect as routine blood tests are not typically required with fluoxetine. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding tyramine-containing foods is more relevant for MAOIs, not SSRIs like fluoxetine.
5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select all that apply.
- A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
- B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
- C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
- D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction. The presentation of stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign changes suggest an acute dystonic reaction, which is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage these acute dystonic reactions. Option A is incorrect because holding the medication without addressing the acute symptoms may lead to worsening of the condition. Option B is incorrect as wiping with cold water or alcohol does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Option D is incorrect because it mentions tardive dyskinesia, which is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements that occur with long-term antipsychotic use, not the acute dystonic reaction seen here.
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