Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been taking an antidepressant for several months. Which symptom would suggest that the medication is working?

• A. Improved mood and increased energy.
• B. Increased appetite and weight gain.
• C. Decreased anxiety and agitation.
• D. Enhanced sleep patterns and vivid dreams.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing the effectiveness of an antidepressant, improved mood and increased energy are positive indicators that the medication is working. Choice B, increased appetite and weight gain, are more commonly associated with side effects of some antidepressants, such as certain tricyclic antidepressants. Choice C, decreased anxiety and agitation, could be related to the therapeutic effects of antidepressants in treating anxiety disorders but may not specifically indicate the efficacy of the medication for depression. Choice D, enhanced sleep patterns and vivid dreams, while changes in sleep patterns can be influenced by antidepressants, they are not the primary indicators of antidepressant efficacy. Therefore, the correct choice is A as it directly reflects the desired outcomes of antidepressant therapy.

2. A client is being treated for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse educate the client about?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Insomnia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Insomnia. Insomnia is a common side effect of SSRIs, including those used to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Educating the client about potential side effects like insomnia is crucial for managing expectations and promoting treatment adherence. Weight loss (choice A) is less common with SSRIs and might not be a primary concern for a client with GAD. Increased appetite (choice B) is also less likely with SSRIs. Dry mouth (choice D) is a side effect more commonly associated with other classes of medications, such as anticholinergics, rather than SSRIs.

3. The nurse is using the CAGE questionnaire as a screening tool for a client who is seeking help because his wife said he had a drinking problem. What information should the nurse explore in-depth with the client based on this screening tool?

• A. Consumption, liver enzymes, gastrointestinal complaints, and bleeding.
• B. Minimizing drinking, frequently missing family events, guilt about drinking, and amount of daily intake.
• C. Cancer screening results, anger, gastritis, daily alcohol intake.
• D. Efforts to cut down, annoyance with questions, guilt, drinking as an “Eye-opener.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The CAGE questionnaire is a screening tool for alcohol use disorder. Each letter in CAGE represents a key question: Cutting down, Annoyance by criticisms, Guilty feelings, and Eye-openers. These questions help assess problematic drinking behaviors and can provide valuable insights into the client's alcohol consumption habits. Choices A, B, and C do not directly align with the specific areas of inquiry covered by the CAGE questionnaire, making them incorrect. Therefore, the nurse should focus on exploring the client's efforts to cut down, annoyance with questions, feelings of guilt, and the use of alcohol as an “Eye-opener” based on this screening tool.

4. The RN is preparing medications for a client with bipolar disorder and notices that the client discontinued antipsychotic medication for several days. Which medication should also be discontinued?

• A. Lithium (Lithotabs).
• B. Benztropine (Cogentin).
• C. Alprazolam (Xanax).
• D. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Benztropine (Cogentin). Benztropine is commonly prescribed to manage side effects of antipsychotic medications. Therefore, if the antipsychotic medication is discontinued, there would be no need for Benztropine. Lithium is a mood stabilizer used in bipolar disorder, not directly related to antipsychotic use. Alprazolam is an anxiolytic, and Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia) is a laxative, neither of which is typically associated with antipsychotic medication use.

5. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?

• A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
• B. Administer a PRN sedative.
• C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.

Similar Questions