while interviewing a client the nurse takes notes to assist with accurate documentation later which statement is most accurate regarding note taking d
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HESI RN

Mental Health HESI Quizlet

1. While interviewing a client, the nurse takes notes to assist with accurate documentation later. Which statement is most accurate regarding note-taking during an interview?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During an interview, note-taking can hinder the nurse’s ability to directly observe the client's nonverbal cues such as body language, facial expressions, and tone of voice. These nonverbal cues are crucial for understanding the client's emotions, feelings, and overall communication. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to strike a balance between note-taking for documentation purposes and actively observing the client's nonverbal communication to ensure a comprehensive assessment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because maintaining eye contact, enhancing the interview process with note-taking, and legal obligations of note-taking during an interview do not directly address the issue of limited observation of nonverbal communication while taking notes.

2. A male client with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that he needs to 'make some deals so that he can improve his retirement savings.' Based on this information, which client outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In individuals with bipolar disorder experiencing mania, impulsivity and poor judgment are common. Delaying business decisions until the mania subsides is crucial to prevent impulsive and potentially harmful financial choices. Choice B, identifying feelings associated with behaviors, may be important but does not directly address the immediate need to prevent risky financial decisions. Seeking legal counsel (Choice C) may be appropriate in some situations but is not the priority in managing acute mania. Describing why he feels fearful about finances (Choice D) is relevant for understanding emotions but does not address the immediate risk of impulsive financial actions during mania.

3. A client is admitted to the mental health unit and reports taking extra antianxiety medication because, “I’m so stressed out. I just wanted to go sleep.” The nurse should plan one-on-one observation of the client based on which statement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's statement of not wanting to talk and feeling that nothing matters anymore is indicative of severe depression or a risk for self-harm. This warrants immediate attention and one-on-one observation to ensure the client's safety. Choices A, B, and C do not express the same level of concerning behavior and do not imply an immediate risk to the client's well-being.

4. A male client approaches the RN with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, “My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out!” The RN recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projection. Projection involves attributing one's own unacceptable feelings or thoughts to others, as seen in the client’s accusations of his roommate’s behavior. In this scenario, the client is projecting his own anger and potential for violence onto his roommate. Choice A, Denial, involves refusing to acknowledge some aspect of reality, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice C, Rationalization, is a defense mechanism where logical reasons are given to justify behaviors that are actually based on unacceptable motives, which is not demonstrated by the client's behavior. Choice D, Splitting, is a defense mechanism where a person sees others as all good or all bad, not applicable in this case as the client is not portraying extreme views of his roommate.

5. A client who has a history of bipolar disorder is recovering from a manic episode and is now experiencing depressive symptoms. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for suicidal ideation is the priority when a client with bipolar disorder is transitioning from a manic episode to a depressive phase. Suicidal ideation is a critical concern during depressive episodes, and ensuring the client's safety is the top priority. Providing a detailed schedule of daily activities (Choice B) may be helpful but is not the immediate priority over assessing for suicidal ideation. Discussing the importance of medication adherence (Choice C) and encouraging group therapy (Choice D) are essential components of care but are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the context of potential suicidal ideation.

Similar Questions

A male client with schizophrenia is being discharged from the psychiatric unit after being stabilized with antipsychotic medications. What is the most important instruction to include in the discharge teaching?
Which client statement suggests that the client is using a defense mechanism of projection to deal with anxiety related to admission to a psychiatric unit?
A client is being treated with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
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