Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is evaluating a client's response to a new antianxiety medication. Which client statement indicates a positive response to the medication?

• A. “I feel more relaxed and less anxious.”
• B. “I am sleeping less and feel more energetic.”
• C. “I have not noticed any changes in my anxiety levels.”
• D. “I have more difficulty concentrating than before.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: “I feel more relaxed and less anxious.” A positive response to antianxiety medication is characterized by reduced anxiety and increased relaxation. Choice B, which mentions sleeping less and feeling more energetic, suggests potential side effects rather than a positive response to the medication. Choice C indicates no change in anxiety levels, which is not indicative of a positive response. Choice D, mentioning difficulty concentrating, is also a sign of a negative response to antianxiety medication as it may suggest cognitive impairment.

2. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select all that apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction. The presentation of stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign changes suggest an acute dystonic reaction, which is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage these acute dystonic reactions. Option A is incorrect because holding the medication without addressing the acute symptoms may lead to worsening of the condition. Option B is incorrect as wiping with cold water or alcohol does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Option D is incorrect because it mentions tardive dyskinesia, which is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements that occur with long-term antipsychotic use, not the acute dystonic reaction seen here.

3. A client is being treated with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Constipation and urinary retention.
• B. Increased appetite and weight loss.
• C. Sedation and blurred vision.
• D. Insomnia and dry mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation and urinary retention. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are known to have anticholinergic side effects, which include constipation and urinary retention. These side effects occur due to the inhibition of cholinergic receptors, leading to decreased gastrointestinal motility and relaxation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight loss, sedation, blurred vision, insomnia, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the use of TCAs. Monitoring for constipation and urinary retention is essential to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety.

4. A male client with bipolar disorder who began taking lithium carbonate five days ago is complaining of excessive thirst, and the nurse finds him attempting to drink water from the bathroom sink faucet. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Report the client’s serum lithium level to the healthcare provider.
• B. Encourage the client to suck on hard candy to relieve the symptoms.
• C. No action is needed since polydipsia is a common side effect.
• D. Tell the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to suck on hard candy is the appropriate intervention as it can help alleviate the sensation of excessive thirst, which is a common side effect of lithium. Reporting the client’s serum lithium level to the healthcare provider may be needed if there are signs of lithium toxicity, but the priority here is to address the immediate symptom of excessive thirst. Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, is a known side effect of lithium, but it should not be left unaddressed. Simply telling the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed does not address the underlying issue of excessive thirst and may lead to further distress.

5. An adolescent with anorexia nervosa is undergoing nutritional therapy. Which finding best indicates that the client is making progress in treatment?

• A. Client gains 2 pounds in a week.
• B. Client describes a positive body image.
• C. Client engages in recreational activities.
• D. Client begins to talk about future goals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight gain is a crucial indicator of progress in the treatment of anorexia nervosa. In individuals with anorexia, restoring and maintaining a healthy weight is a primary goal to address the underlying nutritional deficiencies and health complications associated with the disorder. While choices B, C, and D are positive developments in the client's overall well-being and recovery journey, they are not as directly linked to the core issue of nutritional rehabilitation in anorexia nervosa. Describing a positive body image, engaging in recreational activities, and talking about future goals are important aspects of psychological and emotional recovery, but weight gain is a more immediate and objective measure of progress in treating anorexia nervosa.

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