Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with cirrhosis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Ascites.
• C. Peripheral edema.
• D. Spider angiomas.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Peripheral edema in a client with cirrhosis can indicate fluid overload and worsening liver function, necessitating immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as respiratory distress, cardiac issues, or renal impairment. Jaundice (choice A) is a common manifestation of cirrhosis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Ascites (choice B) is also a common complication of cirrhosis that may require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing peripheral edema. Spider angiomas (choice D) are typically benign skin lesions associated with cirrhosis but do not require immediate intervention unless bleeding or rupture occurs.

2. During a home visit, the nurse observes that a client with limited mobility has difficulty accessing the bathroom. What should the nurse do first?

• A. suggest the client install a bedside commode
• B. assist the client in modifying the home environment
• C. refer the client to an occupational therapist
• D. educate the client on mobility aids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to suggest that the client installs a bedside commode. This option provides an immediate solution to the client's difficulty accessing the bathroom. While modifying the home environment (Choice B) and referring the client to an occupational therapist (Choice C) are important steps, suggesting a bedside commode addresses the immediate need efficiently. Educating the client on mobility aids (Choice D) can be beneficial but may not be the most urgent action required in this scenario.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing the laboratory results for a client who is admitted with renal failure and osteodystrophy. Which findings are consistent with this client's clinical picture?

• A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L and total calcium of 9 mg/dL.
• B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3.
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL.
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and phosphorus of 2 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In renal failure and osteodystrophy, there is an alteration in serum electrolyte balance. The correct answer is serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL. Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia (elevated serum potassium) and hypocalcemia (low total calcium levels). Hyperphosphatemia is also commonly seen in renal failure. Choice A is incorrect as it describes normal levels of serum potassium and total calcium. Choice B is unrelated to the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the typical electrolyte imbalances seen in renal failure and osteodystrophy.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

5. A public health nurse is assessing a community's readiness for a new smoking cessation program. Which factor is most important to evaluate?

• A. the community's smoking rates
• B. the availability of smoking cessation resources
• C. the community's attitude towards smoking
• D. the local healthcare providers' support for the program

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical factor to evaluate when assessing a community's readiness for a smoking cessation program is the community's attitude towards smoking. Understanding the community's perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors related to smoking is crucial as it helps determine the level of receptiveness and potential success of the program. Assessing smoking rates (Choice A) could provide valuable epidemiological data but may not reflect the community's readiness for change. While the availability of smoking cessation resources (Choice B) is important, without considering the community's attitude, the program's effectiveness may be limited. Local healthcare providers' support (Choice D) is valuable but secondary to the community's attitude, which directly influences the program's acceptance and impact.

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