Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum osmolality of 320 mOsm/kg.
• B. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL.
• C. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L.
• D. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum glucose level of 600 mg/dL is extremely high in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) and poses a significant risk of serious complications such as dehydration, coma, and electrolyte imbalances. Rapid intervention is crucial to normalize the glucose level and prevent further deterioration. Serum osmolality of 320 mOsm/kg, serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L, and serum sodium of 140 mEq/L, while important to monitor in HHS, do not represent an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent intervention compared to the critically high glucose level.

2. The nurse is planning an immunization campaign targeting the children of migrant farm workers in the community. Which data should the nurse review before exploring solution options when developing this program plan?

• A. uncertain risks
• B. potential outcomes
• C. priority of solutions
• D. target population data

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Before designing an immunization campaign for the children of migrant farm workers, the nurse should review target population data. This includes understanding the specific demographics, health needs, and challenges faced by this population to create a tailored and effective program. Reviewing uncertain risks (choice A) may not provide actionable insights for program development. Considering potential outcomes (choice B) is important but comes after understanding the target population. Evaluating the priority of solutions (choice C) is premature without knowing the specific characteristics and needs of the target population.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperthyroidism. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• D. Weight loss of 5 pounds in one week.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Weight loss of 5 pounds in one week in a client with hyperthyroidism is concerning as it may indicate severe hypermetabolism, leading to potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other metabolic disturbances. Rapid weight loss in hyperthyroidism indicates an accelerated metabolic rate and increased energy expenditure, which can be detrimental to the client's health. The other assessment findings (heart rate of 100 beats per minute, blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute) are commonly seen in clients with hyperthyroidism and may not necessarily require immediate intervention unless they are significantly outside the normal range or causing distress to the client.

4. A primipara with a breech presentation is in the transition phase of labor. The nurse visualizes the perineum and sees the umbilical cord extruding from the introitus. In which position should the nurse place the client?

• A. Supine with the foot of the bed raised.
• B. On the left side with legs elevated.
• C. On the right side with legs elevated.
• D. Prone with head elevated.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a primipara with a breech presentation and a prolapsed umbilical cord, the nurse should place the client in the supine position with the foot of the bed raised (Trendelenburg position). This position helps alleviate gravitational pressure by the fetus on the cord, preventing compression and reducing the risk of cord prolapse complications. Placing the client on the left or right side with legs elevated or in a prone position with the head elevated would not be appropriate in this situation, as they do not effectively relieve the pressure on the umbilical cord.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

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