Nursing Elites

1. During a follow-up home visit, the nurse observes that a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is using accessory muscles to breathe and has a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator
• B. Increase the oxygen flow rate
• C. Instruct the client to perform pursed-lip breathing
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should first instruct the client to perform pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing helps improve oxygenation and decrease the work of breathing in clients with COPD. Administering a bronchodilator or increasing the oxygen flow rate may be necessary interventions but addressing the breathing technique through pursed-lip breathing is the initial action to optimize oxygenation. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately is not the first action indicated in this scenario; the nurse should intervene promptly to assist the client in improving breathing before escalating the situation.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).
• B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• D. Fatigue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with pneumonia, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute requires immediate intervention. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, suggesting possible complications like heart failure or fluid overload. Monitoring the heart rate closely and addressing any signs of heart failure promptly are crucial. A temperature of 99°F is within normal range and does not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute is also normal. Fatigue is a common symptom in pneumonia but does not indicate an immediate need for intervention compared to the critical nature of jugular vein distention.

3. The nurse is assisting with the triage of clients at a large community disaster and finds a man lying on the ground, who states that the blast threw him out of a second-story window. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Logroll the client to his side and assess for back injuries
• B. Perform a complete neurological assessment
• C. Open the client's airway immediately
• D. Place the nurse's hands around the client's neck to stabilize

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Opening the client's airway immediately is the priority in this scenario. Ensuring the airway is clear takes precedence over other actions as it is crucial for the client's breathing and oxygenation. Logrolling the client to assess for back injuries may worsen the condition if there are spinal injuries, so this should not be done as the first step. Performing a complete neurological assessment is important but not the immediate priority over ensuring the airway is clear. Placing the nurse's hands around the client's neck to stabilize is incorrect and could potentially harm the client, as neck stabilization should only be done if there is a suspected neck injury, which is not indicated in this case.

4. The public health nurse is preparing to administer flu vaccines at a community center. Which group should the nurse prioritize for vaccination?

• A. children under 5 years old
• B. adults aged 50-65
• C. pregnant women
• D. healthcare workers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pregnant women should be prioritized for flu vaccination as they are at higher risk for complications from the flu. During pregnancy, changes in the immune, heart, and lung functions make pregnant women more susceptible to severe illness from the flu. Vaccinating pregnant women not only protects them but also provides passive immunity to their newborns. Children under 5, adults aged 50-65, and healthcare workers are important groups for vaccination but do not have the same level of increased risk for flu complications as pregnant women.

5. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
• C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

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