Nursing Elites

1. A client with a C-6 spinal injury changes to a breathing pattern of shallow respirations and dyspnea twelve hours after the causative incident. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider and implement which intervention?

• A. Place the client in reverse Trendelenburg position
• B. Prepare for intubation with an endotracheal tube
• C. Administer a pain medication to the client
• D. Instruct the client on deep breathing exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a C-6 spinal injury exhibiting shallow respirations and dyspnea, these signs could indicate respiratory compromise and potential respiratory failure. Intubation with an endotracheal tube may be necessary to secure the airway and support adequate oxygenation. Placing the client in reverse Trendelenburg position, administering pain medication, or instructing on deep breathing exercises would not directly address the urgency of the respiratory distress in this situation, making them incorrect choices.

2. The nurse enters the room of a client with a nasogastric tube who is receiving continuous feeding. The nurse observes that the client is coughing and that the infusion pump is alarming. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Auscultate the client's breath sounds
• B. Turn the client to the side
• C. Stop the feeding infusion
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first in this situation is to stop the feeding infusion. Coughing in a client with a nasogastric tube can indicate aspiration, which can be a serious complication. By stopping the feeding infusion immediately, the nurse can prevent further aspiration and related complications. Auscultating breath sounds or turning the client to the side may be necessary actions but addressing the feeding infusion is the priority. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after the immediate issue of potential aspiration is managed.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is the laboratory value that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. PTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is specifically sensitive to heparin's anticoagulant effects. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation without increasing the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important laboratory values in other contexts, they are not specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

4. A client with a small bowel obstruction is experiencing frequent vomiting. Which instructions are most important for the nurse to provide to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is completing morning care for this client?

• A. Maintain a quiet environment
• B. Ensure the linens are clean and dry
• C. Place an air deodorizer in the room
• D. Measure all emesis accurately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Measure all emesis accurately.' When a client with a small bowel obstruction is experiencing frequent vomiting, measuring emesis accurately is crucial for monitoring fluid balance and preventing dehydration. Choice A, 'Maintain a quiet environment,' while important for patient comfort, is not as critical as accurately measuring emesis. Choices B and C, 'Ensure the linens are clean and dry' and 'Place an air deodorizer in the room,' focus on environmental factors that, although helpful, are not as essential as monitoring the client's fluid balance in this situation.

5. The nurse is assessing a client who has a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding indicates that the client is at risk for digoxin toxicity?

• A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
• C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
• D. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low serum potassium level increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity is more likely to occur in individuals with low potassium levels because potassium is crucial for proper heart function. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute, blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg, and respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate an increased risk of digoxin toxicity.

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