a client with a c 6 spinal injury changes to a breathing pattern of shallow respirations and dyspnea twelve hours after the causative incident the nur
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet

1. A client with a C-6 spinal injury changes to a breathing pattern of shallow respirations and dyspnea twelve hours after the causative incident. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider and implement which intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a C-6 spinal injury exhibiting shallow respirations and dyspnea, these signs could indicate respiratory compromise and potential respiratory failure. Intubation with an endotracheal tube may be necessary to secure the airway and support adequate oxygenation. Placing the client in reverse Trendelenburg position, administering pain medication, or instructing on deep breathing exercises would not directly address the urgency of the respiratory distress in this situation, making them incorrect choices.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes a diet high in vitamin C for a client with a leg wound. Which food should the nurse encourage the client to eat?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tomatoes and lettuce are high in vitamin C, making them suitable choices for a diet prescribed for wound healing. Bananas and pineapple (Choice A) are not particularly high in vitamin C compared to tomatoes and lettuce. Cottage cheese and crackers (Choice B) as well as peanut butter and jelly (Choice C) do not provide significant amounts of vitamin C, which is essential for wound healing.

3. The nurse is assessing on the first postoperative day following thyroid surgery. Which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring calcium levels is crucial post-thyroid surgery to detect hypocalcemia, a common complication due to injury or removal of the parathyroid glands. Monitoring sodium, chloride, or potassium levels is not as vital in the immediate post-thyroid surgery period.

4. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, the priority nursing diagnosis is Ineffective Tissue Perfusion. This diagnosis indicates that the client is not receiving adequate oxygenated blood to tissues, putting vital organs at risk. Addressing ineffective tissue perfusion is crucial to prevent organ damage and ensure the client's survival. The other options, such as 'Risk for imbalanced body temperature,' 'Excess fluid volume,' and 'Fatigue,' are important but secondary to the immediate threat of inadequate tissue perfusion in cardiogenic shock.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving treatment for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to the treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign indicating that the client is responding to the treatment for dehydration. It suggests that the client's kidneys are functioning better, helping to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration, not improvement. Decreased skin turgor (Choice C) and elevated heart rate (Choice D) are also symptoms of dehydration and do not indicate a positive response to treatment.

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