a client with a c 6 spinal injury changes to a breathing pattern of shallow respirations and dyspnea twelve hours after the causative incident the nur a client with a c 6 spinal injury changes to a breathing pattern of shallow respirations and dyspnea twelve hours after the causative incident the nur
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HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet

1. A client with a C-6 spinal injury changes to a breathing pattern of shallow respirations and dyspnea twelve hours after the causative incident. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider and implement which intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a C-6 spinal injury exhibiting shallow respirations and dyspnea, these signs could indicate respiratory compromise and potential respiratory failure. Intubation with an endotracheal tube may be necessary to secure the airway and support adequate oxygenation. Placing the client in reverse Trendelenburg position, administering pain medication, or instructing on deep breathing exercises would not directly address the urgency of the respiratory distress in this situation, making them incorrect choices.

2. A client with a tracheostomy has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing humidity in the client's room can help liquefy thick secretions and facilitate easier airway clearance in a client with a tracheostomy. Encouraging the client to drink plenty of fluids can be beneficial for overall hydration but may not directly address thick secretions. Deep suctioning every 2 to 4 hours can be harmful and cause trauma to the airway lining. Administering a mucolytic agent should be done under the healthcare provider's order and may not be the initial intervention for thick secretions.

3. Which of the following is not one of the four nitrogenous bases that make up the DNA structure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Uracil. Uracil is found in RNA, not DNA. The four nitrogenous bases in DNA are adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine. Choice A, Adenine, is a nitrogenous base in DNA. Choice B, Guanine, is another nitrogenous base in DNA. Choice D, Thymine, is also one of the four nitrogenous bases in DNA. Therefore, the correct answer is Uracil (Choice C).

4. A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should have which of the following laboratory results reviewed to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the most appropriate laboratory result to review when evaluating the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and the INR helps determine if the dosage is within a therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Choice A, a Complete Blood Count (CBC), provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B, Prothrombin time (PT), measures the time it takes for blood to clot but is not as specific for monitoring warfarin therapy as the INR. Choice D, Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the primary test used to monitor warfarin therapy.

5. When a client has suffered severe burns all over his body, the most effective method of monitoring the cardiovascular system is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring is the most effective method to assess fluid status and the cardiovascular system in a client with severe burns. Severe burns can lead to significant fluid shifts and hemodynamic changes, making central venous pressure monitoring crucial for guiding fluid resuscitation and managing cardiovascular stability in these patients.

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