Nursing Elites

1. The client diagnosed with a right fractured femur has skeletal traction applied to the right femur. Which interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Perform passive range of motion to the right leg
• B. Remove skeletal weights every shift to assess right leg
• C. Turn frequently from prone to supine positions
• D. Maintain skeletal pin sites and assess for signs of infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Maintaining skeletal pin sites and assessing for infection are critical in skeletal traction care.

2. A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is placed on drug therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). The client should be instructed to report which effect(s) of the medication to the healthcare provider?

• A. Reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids
• B. Bloody or blood-tinged urine
• C. Blurring of vision
• D. Weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a week

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rifampin (Rifadin) commonly causes a reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine, sweat, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect but should be reported to the healthcare provider for monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with rifampin therapy. Bloody or blood-tinged urine may indicate other issues such as urinary tract infection or kidney problems, blurring of vision may suggest eye problems, and significant weight gain could be related to various health conditions unrelated to rifampin.

3. A client with an electrical burn on the forearm asks the nurse why there is no feeling of pain from the burn. During the dressing change, the nurse determines that the burn is dry, waxy, and white. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. The depth of tissue destruction is minor
• B. Pain is interrupted due to nerve compression
• C. The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves
• D. Second-degree burns are not usually painful

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves.' In full thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, the nerve endings are destroyed, leading to a lack of pain sensation at the site of the burn. The description of the burn as dry, waxy, and white indicates a full thickness burn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not explain the absence of pain in full thickness burns. Choice A is incorrect as a full-thickness burn involves significant tissue destruction. Choice B is incorrect because nerve compression would not explain the lack of pain in this context. Choice D is incorrect because second-degree burns, unlike full-thickness burns, are painful due to nerve endings being intact.

4. A male client admitted three days ago with respiratory failure is intubated, and 40% oxygen per facemask is initiated. Currently, his temperature is 99°F, capillary refill is less than 4 seconds, and respiratory effort is within normal limits. What outcome should the nurse evaluate to measure for successful extubation?

• A. Exhibits adequate tissue perfusion
• B. Remains free of injury
• C. Remains free of infection
• D. Maintains effective breathing pattern

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Successful extubation relies on the patient's ability to maintain an effective breathing pattern. This indicates that the patient can adequately oxygenate and ventilate without the need for mechanical support. Monitoring tissue perfusion, preventing infection, and ensuring safety are important but not directly related to the immediate criteria for successful extubation. Tissue perfusion, injury prevention, and infection control are crucial aspects of overall patient care but are not the primary factors to consider when evaluating readiness for extubation.

5. The nurse is planning care for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?

• A. Administer an antiemetic before meals
• B. Provide frequent mouth care
• C. Encourage small, frequent meals
• D. Offer clear liquids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an antiemetic before meals is a crucial intervention to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea. Antiemetics help prevent or reduce nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Providing frequent mouth care (choice B) is important for managing oral mucositis but not specifically for nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (choice C) and offering clear liquids (choice D) are beneficial strategies for managing gastrointestinal side effects but may not be as effective in controlling nausea as administering antiemetics.

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