Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate
• B. Administer a glucagon injection
• C. Provide a snack with protein
• D. Encourage the client to rest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate. Carbohydrate intake helps to rapidly raise blood sugar levels in cases of hypoglycemia. Administering a glucagon injection (Choice B) is not the initial treatment for mild hypoglycemia; it is typically used for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to consume oral carbohydrates. Providing a snack with protein (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for hypoglycemia; immediate carbohydrate intake is necessary to raise blood sugar levels quickly. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice D) may be appropriate after administering the carbohydrate, but the priority is to address the low blood glucose levels by administering carbohydrates first.

2. A client receiving amlodipine (Norvasc), a calcium channel blocker, develops 1+ pitting edema around the ankles. It is most important for the nurse to obtain what additional client data?

• A. Bladder distention
• B. Serum albumin level
• C. Abdominal girth
• D. Breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D. Breath sounds.' When a client receiving amlodipine develops edema, it is crucial to assess for potential heart failure, a side effect of the medication. Checking breath sounds helps in identifying any signs of pulmonary edema, a severe complication of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this context. Bladder distention could be associated with urinary issues, serum albumin level with malnutrition or liver disease, and abdominal girth with gastrointestinal problems, none of which directly relate to the potential heart failure induced by amlodipine.

3. One hour after delivery, the nurse is unable to palpate the uterine fundus of a client and notes a large amount of lochia on the perineal pad. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Empty the bladder using an indwelling urinary catheter
• B. Increase the rate of the IV containing oxytocin (Pitocin)
• C. Assess for shock by determining the blood pressure
• D. Perform gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus is the initial intervention to help contract the uterus and reduce bleeding, which is crucial in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Emptying the bladder can help with fundal displacement, but massage should be done first to stimulate uterine contractions. Increasing the IV oxytocin rate is a possible intervention but not the initial priority. Assessing for shock is important, but addressing the uterine atony through massage takes precedence to prevent further hemorrhage.

4. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving peritoneal dialysis. The nurse notes that the client's dialysate output is less than the input and that the client's abdomen is distended. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Turn the client from side to side
• B. Increase the dwell time of the dialysis
• C. Reposition the client
• D. Milk the catheter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is turning the client from side to side. This helps to facilitate drainage in peritoneal dialysis. Turning the client can aid in redistributing the dialysate and promoting better drainage. Increasing the dwell time of the dialysis (choice B) may not address the immediate issue of inadequate drainage. Repositioning the client (choice C) might not be as effective as turning the client from side to side. Milking the catheter (choice D) is not recommended as it can lead to complications. In this situation, the priority is to facilitate drainage to address the distended abdomen.

5. A client who is taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro) reports to the nurse of having a loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of ciprofloxacin.
• B. Instruct the client to take ciprofloxacin with food.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms.
• D. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on ciprofloxacin reports loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms. These symptoms could indicate a need for a change in medication or additional treatment, which the healthcare provider would need to assess. Instructing the client to take ciprofloxacin with food (choice B) may help with gastrointestinal upset but will not address the reported symptoms. Reassuring the client (choice A) is important for providing emotional support but does not address the need for further evaluation. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice D) is generally beneficial but may not directly address the specific side effects reported.

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