Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate
• B. Administer a glucagon injection
• C. Provide a snack with protein
• D. Encourage the client to rest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate. Carbohydrate intake helps to rapidly raise blood sugar levels in cases of hypoglycemia. Administering a glucagon injection (Choice B) is not the initial treatment for mild hypoglycemia; it is typically used for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to consume oral carbohydrates. Providing a snack with protein (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for hypoglycemia; immediate carbohydrate intake is necessary to raise blood sugar levels quickly. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice D) may be appropriate after administering the carbohydrate, but the priority is to address the low blood glucose levels by administering carbohydrates first.

2. Oxygen at liters/min per nasal cannula PRN difficult breathing is prescribed for a client with pneumonia. Which nursing intervention is effective in preventing oxygen toxicity?

• A. Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods.
• B. Administering a sedative at bedtime to slow the client's respiratory rate.
• C. Removing the nasal cannula during the night to prevent oxygen buildup.
• D. Running oxygen through a hydration source prior to administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods. Oxygen toxicity can occur when high levels of oxygen are given for a prolonged period. It is important to monitor and adjust the oxygen levels as needed to prevent toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because administering a sedative to slow the respiratory rate does not directly prevent oxygen toxicity. Choice C is incorrect as removing the nasal cannula during the night can compromise the client's oxygenation. Choice D is incorrect as running oxygen through a hydration source does not prevent oxygen toxicity; instead, it may introduce risks associated with the hydration source.

3. A 59-year-old male client is brought to the emergency room where he is assessed to have a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3. Based on this assessment, how should the nurse characterize the client's condition?

• A. The client is experiencing increased intracranial pressure
• B. He has a good prognosis for recovery
• C. This client is conscious, but is not oriented to time and place
• D. He is in a coma, and has a very poor prognosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale of 3 indicates severe neurological impairment, suggesting a deep coma or even impending death. This client's condition is critical, and he has a very poor prognosis. Choice A is incorrect because a GCS of 3 does not directly indicate increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as a GCS of 3 signifies a grave neurological status. Choice C is incorrect as a GCS of 3 represents a state of unconsciousness rather than being conscious but disoriented.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is the laboratory value that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. PTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is specifically sensitive to heparin's anticoagulant effects. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation without increasing the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important laboratory values in other contexts, they are not specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

5. A client is taught how to collect a 24-hour urine specimen. Which statement indicates understanding of the procedure?

• A. I should keep the urine specimen refrigerated.
• B. I need to start the collection in the morning after my first void.
• C. I will collect the urine for 24 hours and keep it on ice.
• D. I will start collecting the urine after discarding my first morning specimen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct way to collect a 24-hour urine specimen is to discard the first morning void and then start the collection. Choice A is incorrect because refrigeration is not typically necessary for a 24-hour urine specimen. Choice B is incorrect as the client needs to discard the first void. Choice C is incorrect; while collecting urine for 24 hours is correct, keeping it on ice is not standard procedure.

Similar Questions