HESI RN
Quizlet HESI Mental Health
1. A client who is known to abuse drugs is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to a client who is exhibiting benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms?
- A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
- B. Perphenazine (Trilafon)
- C. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
- D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is the correct choice for managing benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms. Benzodiazepines are drugs that can lead to physical dependence, and abrupt discontinuation can result in withdrawal symptoms. Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine itself, is often used in a controlled manner to taper off the drug gradually and manage withdrawal symptoms effectively. Choices A, Diphenhydramine, and B, Perphenazine, are not typically used to manage benzodiazepine withdrawal. Choice C, Isocarboxazid, is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used in the treatment of depression and not indicated for benzodiazepine withdrawal.
2. The RN is providing education about strategies for a safety plan for a female client who is a victim of intimate partner violence. Which strategies should be included in the safety plan? (SOA)
- A. Purchase a gun for protection.
- B. Establish a code with family and friends to signal violence.
- C. Take a self-defense course focused on protection.
- D. Prepare a bag with extra clothes for self and children.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Establishing a code with family and friends is crucial in situations of intimate partner violence as it allows discreet communication for help without alerting the abuser. Having a pre-prepared bag with essentials like extra clothes is important to facilitate a quick exit if necessary. Purchasing a gun is not a recommended safety strategy as it can escalate violence and pose more danger. While taking a self-defense course focused on protection is beneficial, it is essential to avoid courses that emphasize retaliation, as they can increase the risk and escalate violence.
3. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
- B. Isolate the client from other clients.
- C. Administer a PRN sedative.
- D. Escort the client to his room.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best intervention for a male client with schizophrenia displaying echolalia, which is disruptive to others, is for the nurse to escort the client to his room. Echolalia, the constant repetition of others' words, can be disruptive in a communal setting. By guiding the client to a private space like his room, the nurse helps manage the behavior without isolating or medicating the client unnecessarily. Avoiding acknowledging the behavior (Choice A) does not address the issue, isolating the client (Choice B) may exacerbate feelings of exclusion, and administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be reserved for situations where there is imminent risk or severe agitation, not for managing echolalia.
4. The RN documents the mental status of a female client who has been hospitalized for several days by court order. The client states, “I don’t need to be here,” and tells the RN that she believes that the TV talks to her. The RN should document these assessment statements in which section of the mental status exam?
- A. Insight and judgment.
- B. Mood and affect.
- C. Remote memory.
- D. Level of concentration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client's statement of not needing to be hospitalized and her belief that the TV talks to her indicate impaired insight and judgment. Insight and judgment evaluate the client's awareness of their condition and ability to make sound decisions. Mood and affect assess emotional state, remote memory evaluates recall of past events, and level of concentration assesses attention and focus. In this scenario, the client's lack of awareness of her need for hospitalization and presence of delusions about the TV speaking to her directly relate to insight and judgment, making choice A the correct option.
5. The nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is exhibiting symptoms of paranoia. Which behavior would the nurse most likely observe?
- A. The client is seen as unmotivated and withdrawn.
- B. The client is preoccupied with a fear of being harmed.
- C. The client displays a blunted affect and lacks emotional response.
- D. The client avoids group activities and shows decreased appetite.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with paranoia, they typically exhibit an intense fear of being harmed, persecuted, or targeted by others. This fear often dominates their thoughts and can significantly impact their daily functioning and interactions. Choice A, being unmotivated and withdrawn, is more indicative of negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as avolition and social withdrawal. Choice C, displaying a blunted affect and lacking emotional response, is associated with flat affect, a symptom commonly seen in schizophrenia but not specific to paranoia. Choice D, avoiding group activities and showing decreased appetite, may be related to various symptoms or side effects, but it is not a defining characteristic of paranoia in schizophrenia.
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