Nursing Elites

1. A client who is known to abuse drugs is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to a client who is exhibiting benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms?

• A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• B. Perphenazine (Trilafon)
• C. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is the correct choice for managing benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms. Benzodiazepines are drugs that can lead to physical dependence, and abrupt discontinuation can result in withdrawal symptoms. Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine itself, is often used in a controlled manner to taper off the drug gradually and manage withdrawal symptoms effectively. Choices A, Diphenhydramine, and B, Perphenazine, are not typically used to manage benzodiazepine withdrawal. Choice C, Isocarboxazid, is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used in the treatment of depression and not indicated for benzodiazepine withdrawal.

2. A female client with a history of major depressive disorder is experiencing a worsening of symptoms. Which statement by the client indicates a potential risk for suicide?

• A. “I’ve been feeling more tired than usual.”
• B. “I’ve been thinking about how much better everyone would be without me.”
• C. “I’ve been having trouble sleeping lately.”
• D. “I feel like I can’t handle everything.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client’s statement about thinking that everyone would be better off without her indicates suicidal ideation. This statement is a significant warning sign for suicide risk and requires immediate intervention. Choices A, C, and D reflect common symptoms of depression but do not directly indicate suicidal thoughts or intentions. Feeling tired, having trouble sleeping, and feeling overwhelmed are typical symptoms of major depressive disorder but do not necessarily suggest an imminent risk of suicide like the statement in option B does.

3. A client is being educated by a nurse about strategies for a safety plan for intimate partner violence. Which strategies should be included in the safety plan? (Select all that apply)

• A. Have a bag ready that contains extra clothes for self and children.
• B. Establish a code with family and friends to signal violence.
• C. Purchase a gun for protection.
• D. Attend a self-defense course focused on self-protection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct strategies for a safety plan for a victim of intimate partner violence include having a bag ready with essentials for self and children and establishing a code with family and friends to signal danger. These strategies can help the client prepare for emergencies and seek help discreetly. Purchasing a gun (Choice C) is not a safe or recommended strategy as it can escalate violence and pose more significant risks. Additionally, taking a self-defense course focused on self-protection (Choice D) is important for self-defense, but it should not involve retaliatory actions against the abuser with the intent to cause harm.

4. While sitting in the day room of the mental health unit, a male adolescent avoids eye contact, looks at the floor, and talks softly when interacting verbally with the RN. The two trade places, and the RN demonstrates the client's behaviors. What is the main goal of this therapeutic technique?

• A. Initiate a non-threatening conversation with the client.
• B. Dialog about the ineffectiveness of his interactions.
• C. Allow the client to identify the way he interacts.
• D. Discuss the client's feelings when he responds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main goal of the therapeutic technique described is to allow the client to identify the way he interacts. This technique helps promote self-awareness in the client by mirroring his behavior back to him, which can lead to insights about his own communication style. Option A is incorrect as the goal is not just to initiate conversation but to facilitate self-reflection. Option B is incorrect because the focus is not on discussing the ineffectiveness of the interactions but on self-awareness. Option D is incorrect as the primary aim is not to discuss the client's feelings but to help him recognize his interaction patterns.

5. While interviewing a client, the nurse takes notes to assist with accurate documentation later. Which statement is most accurate regarding note-taking during an interview?

• A. The client’s comfort level is increased when the nurse maintains eye contact while taking notes.
• B. The interview process is enhanced with note-taking, allowing the client to speak at a normal pace.
• C. Note-taking during an interview is not a legal obligation of the examining nurse.
• D. The nurse’s ability to directly observe the client’s nonverbal communication is limited with note-taking.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During an interview, note-taking can hinder the nurse’s ability to directly observe the client's nonverbal cues such as body language, facial expressions, and tone of voice. These nonverbal cues are crucial for understanding the client's emotions, feelings, and overall communication. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to strike a balance between note-taking for documentation purposes and actively observing the client's nonverbal communication to ensure a comprehensive assessment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because maintaining eye contact, enhancing the interview process with note-taking, and legal obligations of note-taking during an interview do not directly address the issue of limited observation of nonverbal communication while taking notes.

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