HESI RN
Quizlet HESI Mental Health
1. A client who is known to abuse drugs is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to a client who is exhibiting benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms?
- A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
- B. Perphenazine (Trilafon)
- C. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
- D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is the correct choice for managing benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms. Benzodiazepines are drugs that can lead to physical dependence, and abrupt discontinuation can result in withdrawal symptoms. Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine itself, is often used in a controlled manner to taper off the drug gradually and manage withdrawal symptoms effectively. Choices A, Diphenhydramine, and B, Perphenazine, are not typically used to manage benzodiazepine withdrawal. Choice C, Isocarboxazid, is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used in the treatment of depression and not indicated for benzodiazepine withdrawal.
2. The client is being educated by the healthcare provider about starting a prescribed abstinence therapy with disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client understand?
- A. Maintain complete abstinence from alcohol consumption.
- B. Stay alcohol-free for at least 12 hours before the first dose.
- C. Participate in monthly therapy sessions.
- D. Disclose to others that he is receiving disulfiram therapy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Before starting disulfiram therapy (Antabuse), the client must comprehend the need to remain alcohol-free for a minimum of 12 hours. This is crucial to prevent the unpleasant and potentially dangerous reactions that can occur with concurrent alcohol consumption while on disulfiram. Choice A is incorrect because it mentions heroin or cocaine use, which is not the primary focus when initiating disulfiram therapy. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests therapy sessions, which are not specifically required before starting disulfiram. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to disclose disulfiram therapy to others, but rather to adhere to the abstinence requirement.
3. When preparing to administer a prescribed medication to a homeless male at a community psychiatric clinic, the client tells the nurse that he usually takes a different dosage. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Tell him to take the medication then verify the dosage at the next healthcare team meeting.
- B. Withhold the medication until the dosage can be confirmed.
- C. Inform him that he may refuse the medication and document whether or not he takes it.
- D. Explain to the client that the dosage has been changed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Withholding the medication until the dosage can be confirmed ensures patient safety and accuracy in treatment.
4. A client is admitted for bipolar disorder and alcohol withdrawal, depressive phase. Based on which assessment finding will the RN withhold the clonidine (Catapres) prescription?
- A. Blood pressure readings of 90/62 mmHg to 92/58 mmHg.
- B. Pulse rate of 68-78 BPM.
- C. Temperature of 99.5-99.7°F.
- D. Respiration rate of 24 breaths per minute.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A. Clonidine, such as Catapres, is a medication that can lower blood pressure. Therefore, if a client has low blood pressure readings, like 90/62 mmHg to 92/58 mmHg, the registered nurse should withhold the clonidine prescription to prevent further lowering of blood pressure which could lead to adverse effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are within normal ranges and do not present a contraindication for the administration of clonidine in this context.
5. April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been getting more and more wound up and is losing self-control in the day room. Time-out does not appear to be an effective tool for April to engage in self-reflection. April’s mother admits to putting her in time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse recognizes that:
- A. Time-out is an important part of April's baseline discipline.
- B. Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.
- C. April enjoys time-out and acts out to get some alone time.
- D. Time-out will need to be replaced with seclusion and restraint.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.' In this scenario, the excessive use of time-out, up to 20 times a day, indicates that it is no longer effective in helping April self-reflect and control her behavior. Constant use of time-out without achieving the desired outcome suggests the need for alternative therapeutic interventions. Choice A is incorrect because the situation described indicates that time-out is not serving its intended purpose. Choice C is also incorrect as the behavior is not driven by a desire for alone time. Choice D is incorrect and inappropriate as seclusion and restraint should only be considered as a last resort and are not indicated based on the information provided.
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