HESI RN
Quizlet HESI Mental Health
1. A client who is known to abuse drugs is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to a client who is exhibiting benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms?
- A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
- B. Perphenazine (Trilafon)
- C. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
- D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is the correct choice for managing benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms. Benzodiazepines are drugs that can lead to physical dependence, and abrupt discontinuation can result in withdrawal symptoms. Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine itself, is often used in a controlled manner to taper off the drug gradually and manage withdrawal symptoms effectively. Choices A, Diphenhydramine, and B, Perphenazine, are not typically used to manage benzodiazepine withdrawal. Choice C, Isocarboxazid, is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used in the treatment of depression and not indicated for benzodiazepine withdrawal.
2. When preparing to administer a domestic violence screening tool to a female client, which statement should the RN provide?
- A. If domestic abuse is happening, I need to ask these questions.
- B. State law requires that all clients are screened for domestic violence.
- C. It is essential for us to know if you are experiencing any domestic abuse.
- D. All clients are screened for domestic abuse because it is common in our society.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because screening all clients for domestic abuse helps normalize the process and reduces the stigma, encouraging honest responses. Choice A is not the best option as it may come off as accusatory and can deter the client from being open. Choice B, mentioning state law, may create fear or pressure, affecting the client's response. Choice C focuses on the healthcare provider's needs rather than emphasizing the client's well-being, which may not facilitate open communication.
3. A young adult female visits the mental health clinic complaining of diarrhea, headache, and muscle aches. She is afebrile, denies chills, and all laboratory findings are within normal limits. During the physical assessment, the client tells the RN that her sister thinks she is neurotic and calls her a hypochondriac. Which response is best for the RN to provide?
- A. Unless your sister has a medical education, ignore her comments.
- B. I can hear that your sister comments are over-whelming you.
- C. Do you think it’s possible that you might be a hypochondriac?
- D. Besides your sister’s comments, what in your life is troubling you?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acknowledging the impact of the sister's comments on the client helps validate the client's feelings and supports therapeutic dialogue.
4. Narcan was administered to an adult client following a suicide attempt with an overdose of hydrocodone bitartrate (Vicodin). Within 15 minutes, the client is alert and oriented. In planning nursing care, which intervention has the highest priority at this time?
- A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- B. Obtain the client’s serum Vicodin level.
- C. Observe the client for further narcotic effects.
- D. Determine the client’s reason for attempting suicide.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Observing the client for further narcotic effects is the priority at this time. It is crucial to monitor the client closely to prevent a relapse of symptoms or potential complications from the overdose. Encouraging fluid intake is important for overall health but not the priority after an overdose. Obtaining serum Vicodin levels may be needed later but does not address the immediate need to monitor for ongoing effects. Determining the reason for the suicide attempt is vital for psychological assessment but should come after ensuring the client's physical stability.
5. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric inpatient unit with a bandaged flesh wound after attempting to shoot himself. He was divorced one year ago, lost his job four months ago, and suffered a breakup of his current relationship last week. What is the most likely source of this client’s current feelings of depression?
- A. Feelings of frustration.
- B. A sense of loss.
- C. Poor self-esteem.
- D. A lack of intimate relationships.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's recent history of divorce, job loss, and breakup of a current relationship indicates a series of significant losses. These losses are likely the primary source of his feelings of depression, leading to a sense of loss. While feelings of frustration (choice A) and poor self-esteem (choice C) could be contributing factors, the immediate trigger for his current emotional state appears to be the series of losses. A lack of intimate relationships (choice D) may be a consequence of the client's depressive symptoms rather than the root cause in this scenario.
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