Nursing Elites

1. A client who is known to abuse drugs is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to a client who is exhibiting benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms?

• A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• B. Perphenazine (Trilafon)
• C. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is the correct choice for managing benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms. Benzodiazepines are drugs that can lead to physical dependence, and abrupt discontinuation can result in withdrawal symptoms. Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine itself, is often used in a controlled manner to taper off the drug gradually and manage withdrawal symptoms effectively. Choices A, Diphenhydramine, and B, Perphenazine, are not typically used to manage benzodiazepine withdrawal. Choice C, Isocarboxazid, is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used in the treatment of depression and not indicated for benzodiazepine withdrawal.

2. The nurse is using the CAGE questionnaire as a screening tool for a client who is seeking help because his wife said he had a drinking problem. What information should the nurse explore in-depth with the client based on this screening tool?

• A. Cancer screening result and gastritis daily alcohol intake.
• B. Consumption, liver enzyme gastrointestinal complaints, and bleeding.
• C. Efforts to cut down, annoyance with questions, guilt, and drinking as an eye-opener.
• D. Minimizes drinking, frequently misses family events, guilt about drinking, and amount of daily intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire focuses on the client’s self-perception and behaviors related to drinking, such as efforts to cut down and guilt.

3. A female client is brought to the emergency department after police officers found her disoriented, disorganized, and confused. The RN also determines that the client is homeless and is exhibiting suspiciousness. The client’s plan of care should include what priority problem?

• A. Acute confusion.
• B. Ineffective community coping.
• C. Disturbed sensory perception.
• D. Self-care deficit.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acute confusion is the priority problem because it directly impacts the client's safety and functioning. In this scenario, the client is disoriented, disorganized, and confused, which can pose immediate risks to her well-being. Ineffective community coping, disturbed sensory perception, and self-care deficit are not as urgent in this situation. Ineffective community coping focuses on the client's ability to manage stress related to the community, disturbed sensory perception pertains to alterations in sensory input, and self-care deficit involves the inability to perform activities of daily living independently. While these issues may also need addressing, acute confusion takes precedence due to the immediate safety concerns it presents.

4. The RN documents the mental status of a female client who has been hospitalized for several days by court order. The client states, “I don’t need to be here,” and tells the RN that she believes that the TV talks to her. The RN should document these assessment statements in which section of the mental status exam?

• A. Insight and judgment.
• B. Mood and affect.
• C. Remote memory.
• D. Level of concentration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's statement of not needing to be hospitalized and her belief that the TV talks to her indicate impaired insight and judgment. Insight and judgment evaluate the client's awareness of their condition and ability to make sound decisions. Mood and affect assess emotional state, remote memory evaluates recall of past events, and level of concentration assesses attention and focus. In this scenario, the client's lack of awareness of her need for hospitalization and presence of delusions about the TV speaking to her directly relate to insight and judgment, making choice A the correct option.

5. An elderly client diagnosed with delirium is being treated with antipsychotic medication. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Akathisia
• B. Hallucinations
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should monitor for in an elderly client diagnosed with delirium and treated with antipsychotic medication is orthostatic hypotension. Antipsychotic medications can lead to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, particularly in elderly individuals. Akathisia (choice A) refers to a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specific to elderly clients with delirium. Hallucinations (choice B) are sensory perceptions that appear real but are created by the mind, and while they can be associated with certain conditions or medications, they are not a common side effect of antipsychotic medications in elderly clients with delirium. Drowsiness (choice D) is a general CNS depressant effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications but is not the specific side effect that the nurse should be monitoring for in this case.

Similar Questions