HESI RN
Quizlet Mental Health HESI
1. An RN is providing education to the family of a client diagnosed with schizophrenia who is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). The RN should instruct the family to report which symptom immediately?
- A. Sore throat
- B. Weight loss
- C. Constipation
- D. Lightheadedness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sore throat. Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cells. A sore throat can be an early sign of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of clozapine. The family should report this symptom immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight loss, constipation, and lightheadedness are not typically associated with the serious adverse effect of agranulocytosis related to clozapine therapy.
2. A young adult female visits the mental health clinic complaining of diarrhea, headache, and muscle aches. She is afebrile, denies chills, and all laboratory findings are within normal limits. During the physical assessment, the client tells the RN that her sister thinks she is neurotic and calls her a hypochondriac. Which response is best for the RN to provide?
- A. Unless your sister has a medical education, ignore her comments.
- B. I can hear that your sister comments are over-whelming you.
- C. Do you think it’s possible that you might be a hypochondriac?
- D. Besides your sister’s comments, what in your life is troubling you?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acknowledging the impact of the sister's comments on the client helps validate the client's feelings and supports therapeutic dialogue.
3. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?
- A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
- B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
- C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
- D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.
4. The nurse on the day shift receives report about a client with depression who was found on the floor in the morning. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Assist the client to get out of bed and involved in an activity.
- B. Monitor the client’s appetite and sleep patterns.
- C. Assess the client’s feelings regarding the hospital stay.
- D. Explain that staff will check on the client every 30 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assisting the client to engage in activities is the best intervention as it can help improve mood and prevent further decline in function. This intervention can also help the client regain a sense of control and purpose. Option B, monitoring appetite and sleep patterns, is important but not the most immediate intervention needed in this situation. Option C, assessing feelings about the hospital stay, is also important but addressing the client's physical safety and well-being should take precedence. Option D, explaining the frequency of staff checks, is not as effective in addressing the client's immediate needs for engagement and support.
5. During the admission assessment of an underweight adolescent with depression on a psychiatric unit, the nurse finds a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl. Which finding requires notification to the healthcare provider?
- A. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl.
- B. BP of 110/70 mmHg.
- C. WBC of 10,000 mm³.
- D. Body mass index of 21.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl is critically low, indicating hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Prompt notification to the healthcare provider is essential for immediate intervention. Choice B, a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, is within the normal range. Choice C, a white blood cell count of 10,000 mm³, is also within normal limits and is not a concerning finding in this context. Choice D, a body mass index of 21, may indicate being underweight but is not as urgent as addressing the critically low potassium level.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access