Nursing Elites

1. An elderly client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. Which assessment finding is most concerning for the nurse?

• A. Weight loss of 5 pounds in one week.
• B. Lack of interest in previously enjoyed activities.
• C. Disorganized speech and thought processes.
• D. Severe fatigue and low energy levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an elderly client with major depressive disorder, disorganized speech and thought processes are the most concerning assessment findings for the nurse. These symptoms can suggest a more severe condition such as psychosis or cognitive impairment, which require immediate attention and intervention. While weight loss, lack of interest in activities, severe fatigue, and low energy levels are common symptoms of major depressive disorder, they do not pose an immediate risk as disorganized speech and thought processes do. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize addressing the disorganized speech and thought processes to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.

2. A client with depression and a history of a recent suicide attempt is being discharged from the hospital. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further follow-up?

• A. “I will take my medication as prescribed.”
• B. “I have a plan to attend weekly therapy sessions.”
• C. “I feel that I am completely recovered now.”
• D. “I will avoid people who make me feel worse.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client with depression and a history of a recent suicide attempt states, “I feel that I am completely recovered now,” it indicates a need for further follow-up. This statement suggests a potential lack of insight into the ongoing nature of depression and may lead to discontinuation of necessary treatment and support. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate positive and proactive attitudes towards managing depression and suicidal ideation, indicating a willingness to engage in treatment, therapy, and self-care practices.

3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select all that apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction. The presentation of stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign changes suggest an acute dystonic reaction, which is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage these acute dystonic reactions. Option A is incorrect because holding the medication without addressing the acute symptoms may lead to worsening of the condition. Option B is incorrect as wiping with cold water or alcohol does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Option D is incorrect because it mentions tardive dyskinesia, which is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements that occur with long-term antipsychotic use, not the acute dystonic reaction seen here.

4. Narcan was administered to an adult client following a suicide attempt with an overdose of hydrocodone bitartrate (Vicodin). Within 15 minutes, the client is alert and oriented. In planning nursing care, which intervention has the highest priority at this time?

• A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• B. Obtain the client’s serum Vicodin level.
• C. Observe the client for further narcotic effects.
• D. Determine the client’s reason for attempting suicide.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing the client for further narcotic effects is the priority at this time. It is crucial to monitor the client closely to prevent a relapse of symptoms or potential complications from the overdose. Encouraging fluid intake is important for overall health but not the priority after an overdose. Obtaining serum Vicodin levels may be needed later but does not address the immediate need to monitor for ongoing effects. Determining the reason for the suicide attempt is vital for psychological assessment but should come after ensuring the client's physical stability.

5. What principle about patient-nurse communication should guide a nurse's fear of 'saying the wrong thing' to a patient?

• A. Patients tend to appreciate a well-meaning person who conveys genuine acceptance, respect, and concern for their situation.
• B. The patient is more interested in talking to you than listening to what you have to say and is not likely to be offended.
• C. Considering the patient's history, there is little chance that the comment will do any actual harm.
• D. Most people with a mental illness have by necessity developed a high tolerance for forgiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct principle guiding nurse-patient communication is that patients value genuine acceptance, respect, and concern. Choice A is the correct answer because showing genuine care and concern for the patient's situation fosters a positive and therapeutic relationship. Choice B is incorrect as effective communication involves active listening and responding appropriately, not assuming the patient is only interested in talking. Choice C is incorrect because a patient's history does not guarantee immunity to harm from inappropriate comments. Choice D is incorrect as it generalizes individuals with mental illness and forgiveness, which is not directly related to communication fears.

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