Nursing Elites

1. During an exacerbation of schizophrenia symptoms, which intervention should the nurse prioritize for a client with a history of schizophrenia?

• A. Encourage adherence to the medication regimen.
• B. Increase social interactions with peers.
• C. Provide a high-stimulation environment.
• D. Assess for safety risks related to the exacerbation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During an exacerbation of schizophrenia symptoms, the nurse should prioritize assessing for safety risks. This is critical because individuals with schizophrenia may experience heightened risks to themselves or others during this period. Encouraging adherence to the medication regimen (Choice A) is important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Increasing social interactions with peers (Choice B) and providing a high-stimulation environment (Choice C) can potentially exacerbate symptoms and should be avoided during an exacerbation.

2. A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) engages in repetitive hand washing that lasts for several hours. Which strategy should the nurse use to manage this behavior?

• A. Encourage the client to continue the behavior to alleviate anxiety.
• B. Establish a routine schedule for hand washing.
• C. Gradually reduce the amount of time spent on the behavior.
• D. Ignore the behavior as much as possible.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), it's crucial to gradually reduce the compulsive behavior to help the client learn to manage anxiety in a structured manner. Encouraging the client to continue the behavior (Choice A) would reinforce the cycle of compulsions. While establishing a routine schedule (Choice B) may provide some structure, it doesn't address the core issue of excessive hand washing. Ignoring the behavior (Choice D) may lead to worsening symptoms and does not help the client in managing their OCD effectively.

3. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

4. An elderly client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. Which assessment finding is most concerning for the nurse?

• A. Weight loss of 5 pounds in one week.
• B. Lack of interest in previously enjoyed activities.
• C. Disorganized speech and thought processes.
• D. Severe fatigue and low energy levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an elderly client with major depressive disorder, disorganized speech and thought processes are the most concerning assessment findings for the nurse. These symptoms can suggest a more severe condition such as psychosis or cognitive impairment, which require immediate attention and intervention. While weight loss, lack of interest in activities, severe fatigue, and low energy levels are common symptoms of major depressive disorder, they do not pose an immediate risk as disorganized speech and thought processes do. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize addressing the disorganized speech and thought processes to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.

5. A client with schizophrenia explains that she has 20 children and then very seriously points to the nurse and explains that she is one of them. What is the most therapeutic response for the nurse to provide?

• A. Let’s go ask another nurse if this is true.
• B. My name tag shows that I am a nurse here.
• C. I cannot possibly be one of your children.
• D. I know that you don’t have 20 children.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Option B, 'My name tag shows that I am a nurse here,' is the most appropriate response as it provides clear and factual information to help the client differentiate between reality and delusion. By pointing out a concrete piece of evidence, the nurse can gently guide the client back to reality without directly challenging or contradicting their belief. Option A, 'Let’s go ask another nurse if this is true,' delays addressing the issue and doesn't provide immediate clarification. Option C, 'I cannot possibly be one of your children,' directly contradicts the client's statement and may increase distress. Option D, 'I know that you don’t have 20 children,' does not address the client's belief and can be perceived as dismissive.

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