Nursing Elites

1. During an exacerbation of schizophrenia symptoms, which intervention should the nurse prioritize for a client with a history of schizophrenia?

• A. Encourage adherence to the medication regimen.
• B. Increase social interactions with peers.
• C. Provide a high-stimulation environment.
• D. Assess for safety risks related to the exacerbation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During an exacerbation of schizophrenia symptoms, the nurse should prioritize assessing for safety risks. This is critical because individuals with schizophrenia may experience heightened risks to themselves or others during this period. Encouraging adherence to the medication regimen (Choice A) is important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Increasing social interactions with peers (Choice B) and providing a high-stimulation environment (Choice C) can potentially exacerbate symptoms and should be avoided during an exacerbation.

2. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

3. A female client, who is wearing dirty clothes and has a foul body odor, comes to the clinic reporting feeling scared because she is being stalked. What action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Assure the client that she will be seen by a healthcare provider today.
• B. Recommend that the client speaks with a social worker.
• C. Ask the client if she feels comfortable sharing why she is being stalked.
• D. Offer the client a safe place to relax before interviewing her.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to offer the client a safe place to relax before interviewing her. The client's disheveled appearance and foul body odor suggest she may be in distress or facing challenging circumstances. By providing her with a safe and comfortable environment to relax, the nurse can help alleviate some of her distress and establish trust. This approach is crucial as the client is already feeling scared due to being stalked, indicating underlying mental health concerns. Assuring the client that she will be seen by a healthcare provider today (choice A) may not address her immediate need for safety and comfort. Recommending she speaks with a social worker (choice B) may be beneficial later but does not address the immediate need for a safe space. Asking the client if she feels comfortable sharing why she is being stalked (choice C) is not appropriate as the priority is ensuring her safety and comfort first.

4. A male client with known auditory hallucinations begins talking loudly and gesturing wildly while in the unit’s day room. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a PRN sedative.
• B. Sit in the chair next to the client.
• C. Escort the client to his room.
• D. Listen to what the client is saying.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When dealing with a client experiencing auditory hallucinations, it is crucial for the nurse to first listen to what the client is saying. Auditory hallucinations may hold significance to the client, and by actively listening, the nurse can gather information about the content and context of the hallucinations. This information helps the nurse assess the client's current state, emotional responses, and the potential triggers for the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice A) should not be the initial action as it may suppress important information and feelings the client is trying to communicate. Sitting next to the client (Choice B) may not be appropriate without understanding the situation better. Escorting the client to his room (Choice C) may escalate the situation without addressing the underlying cause of the behavior, which can be better understood through active listening.

5. A male adolescent was admitted to the unit two days ago for depression. When the mental health nurse tries to interview the client to establish rapport, he becomes very irritated and sarcastic. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Offer to play a game of cards with the client.
• B. Report the behavior to the next shift.
• C. Document the behavior in the chart.
• D. Plan to talk with the client the next day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering to play a game of cards with the adolescent is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation. Engaging in an activity like playing a game can help establish rapport with the adolescent as it provides a more relaxed and non-threatening environment for communication. This approach can help the adolescent feel more comfortable and open up, as adolescents often find it easier to communicate when involved in an activity. Reporting the behavior to the next shift, documenting the behavior, or planning to talk with the client the next day do not directly address the immediate need to establish rapport and improve communication with the adolescent.

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