HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A client who has just undergone surgery suddenly experiences chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea. The nurse suspects that the client has a pulmonary embolism and immediately sets about:
- A. Preparing the client for a perfusion scan
- B. Attaching the client to a cardiac monitor
- C. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula
- D. Ensuring that the intravenous (IV) line is patent
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client who has just undergone surgery experiences sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea, indicating possible pulmonary embolism, the immediate priority for the nurse is to administer oxygen via nasal cannula. This intervention aims to improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress, which is crucial in the setting of a potential pulmonary embolism. Preparing the client for a perfusion scan is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's respiratory status comes first. While attaching the client to a cardiac monitor is important for monitoring, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation. Ensuring IV line patency is relevant for overall client care but is not the priority when a client is experiencing respiratory distress requiring immediate intervention.
2. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient with acute pancreatitis?
- A. Administering oral fluids.
- B. Administering IV fluids.
- C. Administering analgesics.
- D. Encouraging the patient to ambulate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a patient with acute pancreatitis is administering IV fluids. IV fluid administration is crucial in managing acute pancreatitis as it helps maintain hydration, correct electrolyte imbalances, and prevent shock. Administering oral fluids (Choice A) may not be sufficient to address the fluid loss and maintain hydration in these patients. While analgesics (Choice C) are important for pain management in pancreatitis, addressing hydration and shock prevention takes precedence. Encouraging the patient to ambulate (Choice D) may be beneficial in some cases for preventing complications like deep vein thrombosis, but it is not the primary intervention needed in the acute phase of pancreatitis.
3. A client with renal insufficiency and a low red blood cell count asks, 'Is my anemia related to the renal insufficiency?' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Red blood cells produce erythropoietin, which increases blood flow to the kidneys.
- B. Your anemia and renal insufficiency are related to inadequate vitamin D and a loss of bone density.
- C. Erythropoietin is usually released from the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow.
- D. Kidney insufficiency inhibits active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney and is released in response to decreased oxygen tension in the renal blood supply. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Anemia in renal insufficiency is often due to decreased erythropoietin production. Anemia and renal insufficiency are not manifestations of vitamin D deficiency as stated in choice B. Choice A is incorrect as erythropoietin does not increase blood flow to the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect because kidney insufficiency does not inhibit active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood; rather, it affects erythropoietin production and subsequent red blood cell formation.
4. A client is tested for HIV with the use of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), and the test result is positive. The nurse should tell the client that:
- A. HIV infection has been confirmed
- B. The client probably has an opportunistic infection
- C. The test will need to be confirmed with the use of a Western blot
- D. A positive test is a normal result and does not mean that the client is infected with HIV
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When an ELISA test for HIV is positive, it is essential to confirm the result with a Western blot. The Western blot is the confirmatory test for HIV. Choice A is incorrect because a positive ELISA test does not confirm HIV infection. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes a different diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because a positive ELISA test does indicate potential HIV infection and requires confirmation.
5. A client presents with a fungal urinary tract infection (UTI). Which assessments should the nurse complete? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Palpate the kidneys and bladder.
- B. Assess the medical history and current medical problems.
- C. Perform a bladder scan to assess post-void residual.
- D. Inquire about recent travel to foreign countries.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing a client with a fungal UTI, the nurse should prioritize gathering information related to the medical history and current medical problems. Clients who are severely immunocompromised or have conditions like diabetes mellitus are more susceptible to fungal UTIs. Assessing the medical history helps identify risk factors and potential causes of the infection. While physical examinations like palpating the kidneys and bladder and performing a bladder scan may be necessary, they should follow the initial assessment of medical history. Inquiring about recent travel to foreign countries is less relevant in the context of a fungal UTI, as the focus should be on immediate medical factors predisposing the client to the infection.
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