Nursing Elites

1. A client without a history of respiratory disease has a pulse oximeter in place after surgery. The nurse monitors the pulse oximeter readings to ensure that oxygen saturation remains above:

• A. 85%
• B. 89%
• C. 95%
• D. 100%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2). In the absence of underlying respiratory disease, the expected oxygen saturation level is at least 95%. Oxygen saturation levels below 95% may indicate hypoxemia, which can compromise tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery to vital organs. Therefore, maintaining oxygen saturation above 95% is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation post-surgery. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent oxygen saturation levels that are below the expected value for a client without a history of respiratory disease, which should be at least 95%.

2. The healthcare professional assesses a client with petechiae and ecchymosis scattered across the arms and legs. Which laboratory results should the healthcare professional review?

• A. Red blood cell count
• B. Platelet count
• C. Hemoglobin levels
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The platelet count is the most appropriate laboratory result to review in a client presenting with petechiae and ecchymosis. Petechiae and ecchymosis are indicative of potential bleeding issues, which can be caused by low platelet count or impaired platelet function. Platelets are essential for clotting, and a low platelet count can lead to bleeding disorders. Reviewing the platelet count will provide valuable information about the client's clotting ability. Choice A, red blood cell count, is not typically associated with petechiae and ecchymosis. Hemoglobin levels (Choice C) are more related to anemia than bleeding disorders like thrombocytopenia. White blood cell count (Choice D) is not directly linked to the presence of petechiae and ecchymosis, which are more specific to platelet-related issues.

3. Which of the following is a priority intervention for a patient with suspected sepsis?

• A. Administering antibiotics.
• B. Administering IV fluids.
• C. Administering antipyretics.
• D. Monitoring blood cultures.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring blood cultures is a crucial intervention in suspected sepsis because it helps identify the causative organism, which is essential for guiding appropriate antibiotic therapy. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important but should be guided by blood culture results. Administering IV fluids (Choice B) is also essential to support hemodynamic stability in sepsis. Administering antipyretics (Choice C) may help reduce fever but is not a priority compared to identifying the causative organism through blood cultures.

4. What types of medications should the healthcare provider expect to administer to a client during an acute respiratory distress episode?

• A. Vasodilators and hormones.
• B. Analgesics and sedatives.
• C. Anticoagulants and expectorants.
• D. Bronchodilators and steroids.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During an acute respiratory distress episode, the priority is to widen air passages, increase air space, and reduce alveolar membrane inflammation. Therefore, the client would likely require bronchodilators to open up the airways and steroids to reduce inflammation. Vasodilators and hormones (Choice A) are not typically indicated in this situation. Analgesics and sedatives (Choice B) may be used for pain management and anxiety but are not primary treatments for respiratory distress. Anticoagulants and expectorants (Choice C) are not the main medications used during an acute respiratory distress episode and may not address the immediate needs of the client.

5. A 70-kg adult with chronic renal failure is on a 40-g protein diet. The client has a reduced glomerular filtration rate and is not undergoing dialysis. Which result would give the nurse the most concern?

• A. Albumin level of 2.5 g/dL
• B. Phosphorus level of 5 mg/dL
• C. Sodium level of 135 mmol/L
• D. Potassium level of 5.5 mmol/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, a protein-restricted diet is crucial to prevent the buildup of waste products. A low albumin level (<3.5 g/dL) indicates inadequate protein intake, raising concern as it may lead to malnutrition and tissue breakdown. Phosphorus, sodium, and potassium levels are not directly impacted by protein intake. Phosphorus levels may elevate in renal failure, but at 5 mg/dL, it is within normal range. Sodium and potassium levels are also within normal limits and not influenced by protein restriction.

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