Nursing Elites

1. A client without a history of respiratory disease has a pulse oximeter in place after surgery. The nurse monitors the pulse oximeter readings to ensure that oxygen saturation remains above:

• A. 85%
• B. 89%
• C. 95%
• D. 100%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2). In the absence of underlying respiratory disease, the expected oxygen saturation level is at least 95%. Oxygen saturation levels below 95% may indicate hypoxemia, which can compromise tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery to vital organs. Therefore, maintaining oxygen saturation above 95% is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation post-surgery. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent oxygen saturation levels that are below the expected value for a client without a history of respiratory disease, which should be at least 95%.

2. A client has just returned to the nursing unit after computerized tomography (CT) with contrast medium. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take as part of routine after-care for this client?

• A. Administering a laxative
• B. Encouraging fluid intake
• C. Maintaining the client on strict bed rest
• D. Holding all medications for at least 2 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After CT scanning with contrast medium, the client does not require special restrictions or interventions. Encouraging fluid intake is important to help flush out the contrast dye and prevent dehydration. Administering a laxative (Choice A) is unnecessary and not indicated after CT with contrast. Maintaining the client on strict bed rest (Choice C) is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Holding all medications for at least 2 hours (Choice D) is not a standard practice after CT with contrast.

3. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. A deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues.
• C. An area of erythema that is painful to touch.
• D. Visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.

4. The client with chronic renal failure is receiving education on managing fluid intake. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can drink as much water as I want.
• B. I should increase my intake of high-sodium foods.
• C. I can skip a dialysis session if I feel tired.
• D. I can eat whatever I want as long as I take my medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. Clients with chronic renal failure should not skip dialysis sessions, as this can lead to serious complications. Dialysis is crucial for managing fluid and electrolyte balance in these clients. Choice A is incorrect because clients with renal failure often have fluid restrictions. Choice B is incorrect as high-sodium foods can worsen fluid retention in clients with renal failure. Choice D is incorrect because dietary restrictions are important in managing chronic renal failure, and eating whatever one wants can lead to further complications.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled to have blood drawn for a fasting blood glucose determination in the morning. What does the nurse tell the client is acceptable to consume on the morning of the test?

• A. Water
• B. Tea without sugar
• C. Coffee without milk
• D. Clear liquids like apple juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Water. A client scheduled for a fasting blood glucose test should only consume water after midnight to ensure accurate test results. Choosing options B, C, or D, which include tea, coffee, or clear liquids like apple juice, is incorrect as they may contain substances that can affect the blood glucose levels, leading to inaccurate test results.

Similar Questions