Nursing Elites

1. A 4-year-old child is returned to the room following a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which of the following assessments would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Frequent swallowing
• B. Coughing
• C. Slow breathing
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy patient, frequent swallowing is a crucial assessment that requires immediate attention by the nurse. Frequent swallowing can indicate bleeding, a complication that needs urgent intervention. Coughing may be expected due to irritation from the surgery but is not as concerning as potential bleeding. Slow breathing and tachycardia are not typically immediate concerns following this type of surgery.

2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
• C. Call the healthcare provider
• D. Check the client's oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Sublingual nitroglycerin is the first-line treatment for chest pain related to coronary artery disease. It helps dilate the coronary arteries and improve blood flow to the heart, providing immediate relief from ischemia. Administering nitroglycerin promptly can help alleviate the chest pain and prevent further complications. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice B) is important but should not delay the administration of nitroglycerin. Calling the healthcare provider (Choice C) can be done after initiating immediate treatment. Checking the client's oxygen saturation (Choice D) is relevant but not the first action to take in this scenario.

3. After placing a stethoscope to auscultate S1 and S2 heart sounds, what should the nurse do to check for an S3 heart sound?

• A. Switch to the diaphragm of the stethoscope to hear any abnormal sounds
• B. Listen with the bell of the stethoscope at the same location
• C. Listen at a different location over the aortic area
• D. Switch to the apical area and reassess for S3 sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To assess for an S3 heart sound, the nurse should listen with the bell of the stethoscope. An S3 heart sound is often low-pitched and best heard with the bell. Choice A is incorrect because switching to the diaphragm is not ideal for detecting low-pitched sounds like an S3. Choice C is incorrect as the S3 heart sound is best heard over the apex of the heart, not the aortic area. Choice D is incorrect because moving to the apical area is appropriate, but the nurse should specifically use the bell of the stethoscope to listen for S3 sounds.

4. An older client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy is preparing for discharge. What finding requires immediate provider notification?

• A. Afebrile with a normal pulse.
• B. No bowel movement since surgery.
• C. No appetite for breakfast.
• D. A positive Chvostek's sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia, a complication after parathyroid surgery that requires immediate attention. This sign is manifested by facial muscle twitching when the facial nerve in front of the ear is tapped, indicating neuromuscular irritability due to low calcium levels. Afebrile with a normal pulse (Choice A) is a normal finding and does not require immediate notification. No bowel movement since surgery (Choice B) is common postoperatively due to anesthesia effects and pain medications and usually resolves within a few days; it does not require immediate notification unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms. No appetite for breakfast (Choice C) is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate notification unless it persists and leads to dehydration or malnutrition.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the medication immediately
• B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
• C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
• D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.

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