Nursing Elites

1. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted to the emergency room with acute weakness, palpitations, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?

• A. Recent compliance with prescribed medications.
• B. Sleep patterns during the previous few weeks.
• C. History of smoking over the past 6 months.
• D. Activity level prior to the onset of symptoms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recent compliance with prescribed medications. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts the management of the condition and could contribute to the current presentation. Ensuring that the client has been taking their prescribed medications can provide vital information to guide further treatment. Choices B, C, and D, although important in a comprehensive assessment, are not as immediately crucial as assessing medication compliance in this emergency situation.

2. A client's chest tube insertion site has crepitus (crackling sensation) upon palpation. What is the nurse's next step?

• A. Apply a pressure dressing to the chest tube site.
• B. Administer an oral antihistamine.
• C. Assess the client for allergies to cleaning agents.
• D. Measure the area of swelling and crackling.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to measure the area of crepitus. Crepitus indicates subcutaneous emphysema, which is a serious condition requiring monitoring. Applying a pressure dressing (Choice A) could worsen the condition by trapping air under the skin. Administering an oral antihistamine (Choice B) is not indicated for crepitus. Assessing for allergies to cleaning agents (Choice C) is not the priority when dealing with crepitus and subcutaneous emphysema.

3. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder has been referred to a local boarding home for consideration for placement. The social worker telephoned the hospital unit for information about the client's mental status and adjustment. The appropriate response of the nurse should be which of these statements?

• A. I am sorry. Referral information can only be provided by the client's health care providers.
• B. I can never give any information out by telephone. How do I know who you are?
• C. Since this is a referral, I can give you this information.
• D. I need to get the client's written consent before I release any information to you.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I need to get the client's written consent before I release any information to you." In this scenario, the nurse must obtain the client's written consent before disclosing any information to the social worker. This process ensures compliance with privacy laws like HIPAA, which are designed to protect client confidentiality. Choice A is incorrect because it does not address the need for consent. Choice B is incorrect as it is unprofessional and does not focus on obtaining consent. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests information can be shared without consent, which goes against privacy laws.

4. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
• B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
• C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
• D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client’s cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.

5. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only.
• B. Offer oral rehydration solution every 2 hours.
• C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube.
• D. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and experiencing projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. Intravenous fluids are crucial for rehydrating an infant suffering from dehydration due to rapid fluid loss from vomiting. Instructing the mother to provide sugar water only (choice A) is inappropriate and insufficient for rehydration. Offering oral rehydration solution every 2 hours (choice B) may not be effective if the infant continues to vomit. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (choice C) may also not be as effective as intravenous fluid therapy in rapidly replenishing fluids and stabilizing the child's condition.

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