Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease. The client's serum calcium level is 7.5 mg/dL. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is indicative of hypocalcemia, a common complication in clients with chronic kidney disease due to impaired calcium absorption and metabolism. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is the opposite of the condition presented in the question and is characterized by elevated serum calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is an increased potassium level, not related to the client's serum calcium level. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is a decreased sodium level and is also not related to the client's serum calcium level.

2. The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client diagnosed with asthma. The primary purpose of the plan is to

• A. Prevent respiratory infections
• B. Prevent airway inflammation
• C. Maintain an open airway
• D. Avoid allergens that trigger attacks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Avoiding allergens that trigger asthma attacks is crucial in managing the condition and preventing exacerbations. While preventing respiratory infections and maintaining an open airway are important aspects of asthma management, the primary focus of the teaching plan is to help the client identify and avoid allergens that could trigger asthma attacks. This proactive approach can significantly reduce the frequency and severity of asthma symptoms.

3. The nurse is teaching a client with asthma to use a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) meter to manage asthma at home. The nurse knows the client understands the proper use of the meter when the client:

• A. Inhales as rapidly as possible when using the meter
• B. Records the highest of three readings
• C. Uses the meter after taking a bronchodilator
• D. Blows out forcefully into the meter after taking a deep breath

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Records the highest of three readings.' When using a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) meter, the client should record the highest of three readings to ensure an accurate measurement of their peak expiratory flow rate. Inhaling rapidly, using the meter after taking a bronchodilator, or blowing out forcefully into the meter after a deep breath are not correct techniques for using a PEFR meter and may lead to inaccurate results.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin. What lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT).
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR).
• D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is the lab value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in clients with DVT. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is prolonged by heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR) are primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Checking hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is important but does not directly assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant, IM, every 8 hours. The vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mg/ml after reconstitution. How many ml should the nurse administer?

• A. 3 ml.
• B. 0.4 ml.
• C. 1.2 ml.
• D. 0.9 ml.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 35 mg of celtazidime from a 100 mg/ml solution, the nurse should give 0.4 ml of the reconstituted celtazidime solution. The calculation is 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml, but since the vial is 500 mg, the answer is 0.35 ml * (500 mg / 100 mg) = 0.4 ml. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

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