the nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease the clients serum calcium level is 75 mgdl which condition shoul
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HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease. The client's serum calcium level is 7.5 mg/dL. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is indicative of hypocalcemia, a common complication in clients with chronic kidney disease due to impaired calcium absorption and metabolism. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is the opposite of the condition presented in the question and is characterized by elevated serum calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is an increased potassium level, not related to the client's serum calcium level. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is a decreased sodium level and is also not related to the client's serum calcium level.

2. The nurse prepares to teach clients about blood glucose monitoring. When should clients always check glucose, regardless of age or type of diabetes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: During acute illness. Checking blood glucose during acute illness is crucial as stress can elevate glucose levels. This monitoring is essential regardless of the client's age or the type of diabetes they have. Checking before going to bed (choice A) may be important for some individuals, but it's not as universally necessary as during acute illness. Checking after meals (choice B) and prior to exercising (choice D) are important times for monitoring blood glucose, but they are not as universally applicable as during acute illness.

3. A client presents with severe dehydration due to prolonged vomiting. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client's skin turgor and mucous membranes. When a client presents with severe dehydration, assessing skin turgor (elasticity of the skin) and mucous membranes (such as checking for dryness in the mouth) is crucial in determining the extent of dehydration. Encouraging the client to drink clear fluids (Choice A) may be important but assessing dehydration severity takes precedence. Monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is essential but assessing dehydration status comes first. Administering an antiemetic (Choice D) addresses vomiting but does not directly assess dehydration.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just received anesthesia. What is the most critical finding to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A significant drop in blood pressure following anesthesia could indicate a serious reaction, such as hypovolemia or anesthetic-induced hypotension. This requires immediate medical attention, while other symptoms like dizziness, mild nausea, and dry mouth are more common and less critical. Dizziness could be expected due to the effects of anesthesia, mild nausea is a common side effect, and dry mouth is a known effect of anesthesia as well.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following lung surgery. What is the most important intervention to ensure the chest tube functions properly?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Keeping the chest tube drainage system below chest level ensures that gravity assists with drainage and prevents fluid or air from flowing back into the pleural space, which could compromise lung function. Clamping the tube if there is excessive drainage (choice A) is incorrect as it can lead to a buildup of pressure and compromise the drainage system. Emptying the drainage chamber every 2 hours (choice B) is important but not as crucial as maintaining the drainage system below chest level. Milking the tube to prevent clots from forming (choice D) is incorrect and could lead to complications such as tube occlusion or damage to the tissue.

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