the nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease the clients serum calcium level is 75 mgdl which condition shoul
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HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease. The client's serum calcium level is 7.5 mg/dL. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is indicative of hypocalcemia, a common complication in clients with chronic kidney disease due to impaired calcium absorption and metabolism. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is the opposite of the condition presented in the question and is characterized by elevated serum calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is an increased potassium level, not related to the client's serum calcium level. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is a decreased sodium level and is also not related to the client's serum calcium level.

2. A client tells the nurse, 'I have something very important to tell you if you promise not to tell.' The best response by the nurse is

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse cannot promise confidentiality in this context. It is essential to prioritize the safety and well-being of the client and others. Certain information, such as harm to oneself or others, must be reported to ensure appropriate interventions are taken. Choice A is incorrect because while documentation is important, confidentiality cannot be guaranteed in this situation. Choice C is incorrect as the nurse should not make promises that may conflict with their professional responsibilities. Choice D is incorrect as reporting everything to the treatment team without discretion may breach client confidentiality.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just received anesthesia. What is the most critical finding to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A significant drop in blood pressure following anesthesia could indicate a serious reaction, such as hypovolemia or anesthetic-induced hypotension. This requires immediate medical attention, while other symptoms like dizziness, mild nausea, and dry mouth are more common and less critical. Dizziness could be expected due to the effects of anesthesia, mild nausea is a common side effect, and dry mouth is a known effect of anesthesia as well.

4. A client receiving IV heparin reports tarry stools and abdominal pain. What interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the client receiving IV heparin who reports tarry stools and abdominal pain is to monitor the stool for the presence of blood. This is crucial to assess for gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential complication of heparin therapy. Assessing the characteristics of the client's pain may be helpful but is not the priority when signs of GI bleeding are present. Administering warfarin is not appropriate without a thorough assessment and confirmation of the cause of symptoms. While obtaining recent partial thromboplastin time results is important in monitoring heparin therapy, in this scenario, the immediate concern is to assess for possible GI bleeding.

5. When speaking with a group of teens about chemotherapy side effects for cancer, which side effect would the nurse expect this group to be more interested in discussing?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Teens are more likely to be concerned with hair loss when discussing chemotherapy side effects because it is a visible and emotionally impactful side effect for them. While all the listed side effects are important to consider, hair loss can have a significant impact on a teenager's self-image and emotional well-being, making it a key point of interest for this age group. Mouth sores, fatigue, and diarrhea are also common side effects of chemotherapy, but they may not carry the same level of emotional weight and visibility as hair loss for teens.

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