Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) calls the health care provider's office complaining of side effects related to the medication. Which side effect indicates the need to stop treatment with this medication?

• A. Nausea
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Anorexia
• D. Cough and chest pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pulmonary reactions such as cough and chest pain are serious side effects associated with nitrofurantoin that require immediate discontinuation of the medication to prevent potential severe respiratory complications.

2. A client is being cared for by a nurse due to severe back pain, and codeine sulfate has been prescribed. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Restrict fluid intake.
• B. Monitor bowel activity.
• C. Monitor for hypertension.
• D. Monitor peripheral pulses.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed codeine sulfate, it is essential to monitor bowel activity because this medication can lead to constipation. Therefore, monitoring bowel function is crucial to prevent or manage any potential gastrointestinal issues that may arise.

3. A healthcare professional prepares to reinforce instructions to a client who is taking allopurinol (Zyloprim). The healthcare professional plans to include which of the following in the instructions?

• A. Instruct the client to drink 3000 mL of fluid per day.
• B. Instruct the client to take the medication with food.
• C. Inform the client that the effect of the medication will occur immediately.
• D. Instruct the client that, if swelling of the lips occurs, this is a normal expected response.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Allopurinol is an antigout medication that works by reducing the production of uric acid in the body. To prevent kidney stones and promote the excretion of uric acid, increased fluid intake is essential. Instructing the client to drink 3000 mL of fluid per day helps to reduce the risk of kidney stones and assists in the elimination of uric acid, thereby enhancing the effectiveness of allopurinol therapy.

4. A client who has begun taking fosinopril (Monopril) is very distressed, telling the nurse that he cannot taste food normally since beginning the medication 2 weeks ago. The nurse provides the best support to the client by:

• A. Telling the client not to take the medication with food
• B. Suggesting that the client taper the dose until taste returns to normal
• C. Informing the client that impaired taste is expected and generally disappears in 2 to 3 months
• D. Requesting that the health care provider (HCP) change the prescription to another brand of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client that impaired taste is an expected side effect of ACE inhibitors like fosinopril, such as Monopril, and typically resolves within 2 to 3 months. It is essential for the nurse to offer reassurance and education to the client about this common side effect to alleviate distress and encourage compliance with the medication regimen.

5. A client with hyperparathyroidism has a serum calcium level of 13 mg/dL. Which medication should be prepared to administer as prescribed to the client?

• A. Calcium chloride
• B. Calcium gluconate
• C. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
• D. Large doses of vitamin D

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The normal serum calcium level ranges from 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. In hypercalcemia, as seen in this client, Calcitonin (Miacalcin) is used to decrease plasma calcium levels by inhibiting bone resorption. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are typically used for hypocalcemia, not hypercalcemia. Large doses of vitamin D should be avoided in hypercalcemia as they can exacerbate hypercalcemia by increasing calcium absorption from the intestines.

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