a client receiving nitrofurantoin macrodantin calls the health care providers office complaining of side effects related to the medication which side
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HESI RN

Pharmacology HESI Quizlet

1. A client receiving nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) calls the health care provider's office complaining of side effects related to the medication. Which side effect indicates the need to stop treatment with this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pulmonary reactions such as cough and chest pain are serious side effects associated with nitrofurantoin that require immediate discontinuation of the medication to prevent potential severe respiratory complications.

2. A client is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is 'I should brush and floss my teeth regularly.' Phenytoin (Dilantin) can cause gingival hyperplasia, so maintaining good oral hygiene is essential. Taking the medication with antacids can affect its absorption, so it should not be done. It is crucial not to stop taking the medication abruptly, even if seizures are controlled. There is no specific requirement to avoid milk while taking phenytoin (Dilantin).

3. A client is being cared for by a nurse due to severe back pain, and codeine sulfate has been prescribed. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care while the client is taking this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed codeine sulfate, it is essential to monitor bowel activity because this medication can lead to constipation. Therefore, monitoring bowel function is crucial to prevent or manage any potential gastrointestinal issues that may arise.

4. A nurse preparing a client for surgery reviews the client's medication record. The client is to be nothing per mouth (NPO) after midnight. Which of the following medications, if noted on the client's record, should the nurse question?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause adrenal atrophy, reducing the body's ability to withstand stress. During surgery, the dosage may need to be adjusted due to its impact on the body's stress response. Choices A, B, and C are not typically contraindicated before surgery and do not have the same potential impact on the body's stress response.

5. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

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