an older client recently has been taking cimetidine tagamet the nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect o
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HESI RN

HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam

1. An older client recently has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Older clients are particularly vulnerable to central nervous system side effects of cimetidine. The most frequent side effect is confusion. It is crucial for nurses to be vigilant in monitoring for confusion as it can impact the client's safety and well-being. While tremors, dizziness, and hallucinations are possible side effects, confusion is the most common in older clients taking cimetidine.

2. The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving the optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is used as an antiulcer agent to reduce gastric acid secretion. The optimal intended effect of omeprazole is the relief of pain and discomfort associated with gastric irritation, commonly referred to as heartburn. Therefore, the absence of heartburn indicates that the medication is working effectively in managing the client's gastric condition.

3. A client with severe acne is seen in the clinic, and the healthcare provider prescribes isotretinoin. The nurse reviews the client's medication record and would contact the healthcare provider if the client is taking which medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isotretinoin is a metabolite of vitamin A, which can lead to toxicity when taken together. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid concurrent use of vitamin A supplements with isotretinoin. Contacting the healthcare provider to discuss discontinuing vitamin A supplements is important to prevent potential adverse effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not known to interact significantly with isotretinoin.

4. A client is receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion of an antineoplastic medication. During the infusion, the client complains of pain at the insertion site. The nurse notes redness and swelling at the site, along with a slowed infusion rate. What is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site, and there are signs of extravasation such as redness and swelling, it is crucial to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Extravasation of antineoplastic medications can cause tissue damage, pain, and necrosis if they escape into surrounding tissues. Prompt action is necessary to prevent further complications and ensure appropriate management of the situation. Administering pain medication, applying ice, or elevating the extremity are not appropriate actions in cases of suspected extravasation. These actions do not address the underlying issue of potential tissue damage and necrosis that can occur due to the leakage of antineoplastic medication.

5. A client is being taught about the use of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for angina. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct administration of nitroglycerin for angina is to take up to three tablets, 5 minutes apart. If the chest pain persists after the third tablet, emergency medical services should be called. Taking more than three tablets or reducing the time interval between doses may lead to hypotension and indicates a need for further teaching.

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