Nursing Elites

1. A client with Crohn's disease is scheduled to receive an infusion of infliximab (Remicade). The nurse assisting in caring for the client should take which action to monitor the effectiveness of treatment?

• A. Monitoring the leukocyte count for 2 days after the infusion
• B. Checking the frequency and consistency of bowel movements
• C. Checking serum liver enzyme levels before and after the infusion
• D. Carrying out a Hematest on gastric fluids after the infusion is completed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of infliximab (Remicade) treatment in a client with Crohn's disease, the nurse should observe the frequency and consistency of bowel movements. Infliximab is an immunomodulator that works to reduce inflammation in the colon, leading to improvements in bowel symptoms such as frequency and consistency. Monitoring these bowel patterns can provide valuable insight into the response to the medication and the overall management of Crohn's disease. Checking the leukocyte count (Choice A) is not specific to monitoring the effectiveness of infliximab for Crohn's disease. Checking serum liver enzyme levels (Choice C) may be important for liver function but does not directly monitor the effectiveness of infliximab. Carrying out a Hematest on gastric fluids (Choice D) is not relevant to monitoring the effectiveness of infliximab in Crohn's disease.

2. Why is prostaglandin E1 prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries?

• A. Prevents hypercyanotic (blue or tet) spells
• B. Maintains an adequate hormone level
• C. Maintains the position of the great arteries
• D. Provides adequate oxygen saturation and maintains cardiac output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prostaglandin E1 is prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries to increase blood mixing, which helps maintain adequate oxygen saturation and cardiac output. This medication does not prevent hypercyanotic spells, maintain hormone levels, or influence the position of the great arteries.

3. A client who received a kidney transplant is taking azathioprine (Imuran), and the nurse provides instructions about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instructions?

• A. I need to watch for signs of infection.
• B. I need to discontinue the medication after 14 days of use.
• C. I can take the medication with meals to minimize nausea.
• D. I need to call the health care provider (HCP) if more than one dose is missed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant taken for life. Discontinuing the medication after 14 days is incorrect.

4. A client is being taught about the use of enoxaparin (Lovenox) for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Inject the medication subcutaneously.
• B. Avoid massaging the injection site after administration.
• C. Administer the medication at the same time each day.
• D. Do not expel the air bubble from the syringe before injection.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is administered subcutaneously at the same time each day to maintain consistent blood levels. Injecting the medication into the muscle is incorrect, as it should be given subcutaneously. Massaging the injection site should be avoided to prevent bruising. The air bubble in the prefilled syringe should not be expelled, as it ensures the full dose is administered.

5. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

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