HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. A nurse is providing instructions to an adolescent who has a history of seizures and is taking an anticonvulsant medication. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the instructions?
- A. I will never be able to drive a car.
- B. My anticonvulsant medication will clear up my skin.
- C. I can't drink alcohol while I am taking my medication.
- D. If I forget my morning medication, I can take two pills at bedtime.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I can't drink alcohol while I am taking my medication.' Alcohol can lower the seizure threshold and should be avoided by individuals taking anticonvulsants. Choice A is incorrect because it is an extreme statement and not necessary for someone taking anticonvulsants. Choice B is incorrect as anticonvulsant medications are not used to clear skin conditions. Choice D is incorrect because doubling up medication doses can be harmful and should not be done without healthcare provider approval.
2. When obtaining the health history of a client suspected of having bladder cancer, which question should the nurse ask to determine the client's risk factors?
- A. Do you smoke cigarettes?
- B. Do you consume alcohol?
- C. Do you use recreational drugs?
- D. Do you take any prescription drugs?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Do you smoke cigarettes?' Smoking is a major risk factor for bladder cancer. Cigarette smoke contains harmful chemicals that can accumulate in the urine and damage the lining of the bladder, increasing the risk of developing cancer. Alcohol use, recreational drug use, and most prescription drugs are not directly linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer. It is important for the nurse to assess smoking history as a significant risk factor in determining the client's risk for bladder cancer.
3. A nurse manager has detected a potential problem with staffing and has asked staff members for their thoughts on the matter. Which of the following best describes the informational activity this manager is engaging in?
- A. Spokesperson
- B. Reporting
- C. Monitoring
- D. Job analysis and redesign
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitoring.' Monitoring involves regularly checking and observing the status of a unit or situation. In this scenario, the nurse manager is actively seeking feedback from staff members to assess and keep track of the staffing situation. Choice A, 'Spokesperson,' refers to a role where someone represents or speaks on behalf of a group or organization, which is not the primary activity in this case. Choice B, 'Reporting,' typically involves presenting information or data about a specific topic or issue but does not capture the ongoing observation and assessment aspect seen in monitoring. Choice D, 'Job analysis and redesign,' involves assessing and restructuring job roles, responsibilities, and tasks, which is not directly related to the action of monitoring staffing levels.
4. The client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being educated about lifestyle modifications. Which of the following recommendations is appropriate?
- A. Avoiding all forms of physical exercise
- B. Limiting carbohydrate intake to less than 30 grams per day
- C. Increasing physical activity to help control blood glucose levels
- D. Consuming a high-protein, low-fat diet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase physical activity to help control blood glucose levels. Physical activity is essential in managing type 2 diabetes mellitus as it helps improve insulin sensitivity, control weight, and regulate blood sugar levels. Avoiding all forms of physical exercise (Choice A) is incorrect as exercise plays a crucial role in diabetes management. While limiting carbohydrate intake (Choice B) can be beneficial, setting a strict limit of less than 30 grams per day is too restrictive and may not be suitable for everyone. Consuming a high-protein, low-fat diet (Choice D) is generally a healthy choice, but it is not the primary lifestyle modification recommended for managing type 2 diabetes mellitus.
5. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.
- A. 31 gtt/min.
- B. 62 gtt/min.
- C. 93 gtt/min.
- D. 124 gtt/min.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.