Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving chemotherapy for cancer treatment is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's best intervention to manage these symptoms?

• A. Offer frequent, small meals
• B. Administer antiemetics before meals
• C. Encourage the client to eat a high-fat diet
• D. Provide the client with cold, carbonated beverages

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering antiemetics before meals is the best intervention to manage nausea and vomiting in clients receiving chemotherapy. This proactive approach helps control symptoms by preventing nausea from occurring, rather than waiting to treat it once symptoms have already started. Offering frequent, small meals (choice A) may worsen symptoms in some cases due to increased stomach activity. Encouraging a high-fat diet (choice C) can be difficult for nauseated clients and may not alleviate symptoms. Providing cold, carbonated beverages (choice D) could exacerbate nausea further due to the temperature and carbonation.

2. What assessment is most important for the nurse to perform for a client with dehydration receiving IV fluids?

• A. Monitor the client’s electrolyte levels.
• B. Check the client’s urine output hourly.
• C. Assess the client’s skin turgor regularly.
• D. Monitor the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client’s electrolyte levels. When a client is receiving IV fluids for dehydration, it is crucial to assess their electrolyte levels regularly. Dehydration can lead to imbalances in electrolytes, especially sodium and potassium, which are essential for maintaining fluid balance and proper organ function. Checking urine output (Choice B) is important but not as critical as monitoring electrolyte levels. Assessing skin turgor (Choice C) is an indirect method of assessing dehydration but does not provide specific information about electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important but not the most critical assessment in this scenario as electrolyte imbalances can have a more direct impact on the client's condition.

3. The mother of a 2-day-old infant girl expresses concern about a 'flea bite' type rash on her daughter's body. The nurse identifies a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed over the thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen. Which explanation should the nurse offer?

• A. We need to monitor the rash for signs of worsening or fever
• B. Your baby may have an allergic reaction to laundry detergent
• C. This is a common newborn rash that will resolve after several days
• D. This is likely a bacterial infection requiring antibiotics

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The rash described is typical of erythema toxicum neonatorum, a common and benign newborn rash that resolves on its own within a few days. No treatment is necessary, and the nurse should reassure the mother. Choice A is incorrect as the rash is self-limiting and does not require monitoring for worsening signs or fever. Choice B is incorrect as erythema toxicum neonatorum is not caused by an allergic reaction to laundry detergent. Choice D is incorrect as this rash is not indicative of a bacterial infection that requires antibiotics.

4. Which task could be safely delegated by the nurse to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

• A. Accompanying a client who self-administers insulin
• B. Cleansing and dressing a small decubitus ulcer
• C. Monitoring a client's response to passive range of motion exercises
• D. Applying and caring for a client's rectal pouch

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because tasks like applying and caring for a client's rectal pouch are within the UAP's scope of practice, as they do not require clinical judgment. Choices A, B, and C involve more complex assessments or interventions that require clinical judgment and should be performed by licensed nursing staff.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following lung surgery. What is the most important intervention to ensure the chest tube functions properly?

• A. Clamp the tube if there is excessive drainage
• B. Empty the drainage chamber every 2 hours
• C. Keep the drainage system below chest level
• D. Milk the tube to prevent clots from forming

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Keeping the chest tube drainage system below chest level ensures that gravity assists with drainage and prevents fluid or air from flowing back into the pleural space, which could compromise lung function. Clamping the tube if there is excessive drainage (choice A) is incorrect as it can lead to a buildup of pressure and compromise the drainage system. Emptying the drainage chamber every 2 hours (choice B) is important but not as crucial as maintaining the drainage system below chest level. Milking the tube to prevent clots from forming (choice D) is incorrect and could lead to complications such as tube occlusion or damage to the tissue.

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