HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A young adult visits the clinic reporting symptoms associated with gastritis. Which information in the client's history is most important for the nurse to address in the teaching plan?
- A. Experiences occasional heartburn after eating spicy food
- B. Consumes 10 or more drinks of alcohol every weekend
- C. Reports frequent use of NSAIDs
- D. Has a history of peptic ulcers
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Excessive alcohol consumption is a major risk factor for gastritis and should be prioritized in the teaching plan. While spicy foods and NSAIDs can contribute to gastritis, alcohol consumption is the most significant factor that needs immediate lifestyle changes to prevent worsening of gastritis symptoms. Peptic ulcers, although relevant, are not as directly linked to exacerbating gastritis symptoms as alcohol consumption.
2. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?
- A. Take the medication with milk to prevent stomach upset.
- B. Increase fluid intake to 2-3 liters per day.
- C. Avoid taking the medication with dairy products.
- D. Continue taking the medication even if symptoms improve.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause crystalluria, so increasing fluid intake to 2-3 liters per day helps flush out the medication and prevent crystal formation in the kidneys. This also ensures adequate hydration, which supports the body's ability to fight the infection. Choice A is incorrect because ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because although it's important to complete the full course of antibiotics, it's equally crucial to report any improvement in symptoms to the healthcare provider.
3. A client is admitted with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer anticoagulant therapy as prescribed.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
- C. Check the client's oxygen saturation.
- D. Prepare the client for a CT scan.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for a CT scan. A CT scan is essential in confirming the presence of a pulmonary embolism (PE) and guiding further treatment. Administering anticoagulant therapy (Choice A) is important in the management of PE, but it is not the priority intervention in this case. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice B) is beneficial for optimizing oxygenation but is not the priority intervention when a PE is suspected. Checking the client's oxygen saturation (Choice C) is important, but obtaining a definitive diagnosis through a CT scan takes precedence in this situation.
4. An older male client, who is a retired chef, is hospitalized with a diabetic ulcer on his foot. His daughter tells the nurse that her father has become increasingly obsessed with the way his food is prepared in the hospital. The nurse's response should be based on what information?
- A. His daughter's observations suggest the client is depressed
- B. His compulsiveness about food may indicate new cognitive decline
- C. Obsessiveness with food is common in diabetic clients
- D. If the client was compulsive about food when he was younger, the aging process can magnify this
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Age can magnify pre-existing compulsive tendencies. If the client was detail-oriented about food earlier in life, this behavior may intensify with aging. It's important to acknowledge and address the client's concerns respectfully. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the daughter's observations do not necessarily point to depression, the compulsiveness about food does not indicate new cognitive decline without further assessment, and obsessiveness with food is not specifically common in diabetic clients.
5. A client with peripheral artery disease reports leg cramps while walking. What intervention should the nurse recommend?
- A. Encourage the client to rest immediately when cramping occurs.
- B. Recommend that the client increase their intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Advise the client to take a short break, then continue walking.
- D. Recommend that the client avoid walking altogether to prevent cramps.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For clients with peripheral artery disease, advising the client to take a short break when leg cramps occur and then continue walking is the appropriate intervention. This approach, known as interval walking, helps manage pain from intermittent claudication and improves circulation over time. Choice A is incorrect because immediate rest may not be necessary, and encouraging the client to resume walking after a short break is more beneficial. Choice B is incorrect since increasing potassium-rich foods may not directly address the underlying issue of peripheral artery disease causing cramps. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding walking altogether can lead to further deconditioning and worsen symptoms over time.
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