HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client is experiencing shortness of breath and wheezing. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer bronchodilator medication
- B. Check the client's oxygen saturation
- C. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing
- D. Elevate the head of the bed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention to open the airways and relieve wheezing and shortness of breath. Bronchodilators work quickly to dilate the airways, making it easier for the client to breathe. Checking oxygen saturation is important but can be done after initiating bronchodilator therapy. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing and elevating the head of the bed can help improve breathing patterns but should follow the administration of the bronchodilator.
2. A female client taking prednisone reports feeling tired after stopping the corticosteroid abruptly. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Auscultate breath sounds.
- B. Measure vital signs.
- C. Palpate the abdomen.
- D. Observe the skin for bruising.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to palpate the abdomen. When a client abruptly stops taking prednisone, there is a risk of adrenal insufficiency, which can present with symptoms like fatigue. Palpating the abdomen is crucial to assess for signs of adrenal crisis, such as abdominal pain, which can indicate severe adrenal insufficiency. Auscultating breath sounds (Choice A) and observing the skin for bruising (Choice D) are not the priority interventions in this situation. While measuring vital signs (Choice B) is important, palpating the abdomen takes precedence in this case to assess for potential adrenal insufficiency.
3. An adult client is admitted to the emergency department after falling from a ladder. While waiting to have a CT scan, the client requests something for a severe headache. When the nurse offers a prescribed dose of acetaminophen, the client asks for something stronger. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication instead
- B. Explain the reason for using only non-narcotics
- C. Consult the healthcare provider about a stronger medication
- D. Administer a stronger medication as requested
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should explain the reason for using only non-narcotics. Following head trauma, non-narcotic medications such as acetaminophen are preferred to avoid masking symptoms of neurological changes, such as increased intracranial pressure, that could worsen after stronger pain medication. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it may not address the severity of the headache. Consulting the healthcare provider about a stronger medication (Choice C) is important, but the immediate need is to educate the client on the rationale for using non-narcotic medications first. Administering a stronger medication as requested (Choice D) could potentially mask important symptoms and should be avoided in this situation.
4. While palpating the gallbladder of a mildly obese client, what finding does the nurse expect if the gallbladder is inflamed?
- A. Severe tenderness and guarding
- B. Slight discomfort upon palpation
- C. A sensation of fullness
- D. No symptoms unless the gallbladder is extremely inflamed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct. If the gallbladder is inflamed, the nurse would expect to find severe tenderness and guarding, which are typical signs of acute cholecystitis. This indicates an inflammatory process in the gallbladder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because slight discomfort, a sensation of fullness, or no symptoms unless extremely inflamed are not typical findings associated with gallbladder inflammation.
5. A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. What side effect should the nurse inform the client about?
- A. Report orange-colored urine as a sign of kidney dysfunction.
- B. Expect red-orange discoloration of urine as a harmless side effect.
- C. Monitor for signs of liver toxicity.
- D. Call the healthcare provider if vision changes occur.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect, but clients should be informed beforehand to prevent alarm. Choice A is incorrect as orange-colored urine is not a sign of kidney dysfunction related to rifampin. Choice C is incorrect because rifampin is more commonly associated with liver toxicity rather than kidney dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as vision changes are not a typical side effect of rifampin.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access