HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. A 4-year-old has been hospitalized for 24 hours with skeletal traction for treatment of a fracture of the right femur. The nurse finds that the child is now crying and the right foot is pale with the absence of a pulse. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider
- B. Readjust the traction
- C. Administer the ordered PRN medication
- D. Reassess the foot in fifteen minutes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, a pale foot with the absence of a pulse indicates compromised circulation, which is a critical emergency. The nurse should immediately notify the healthcare provider to address the circulation issue promptly. Reading the question and understanding the urgency is vital. Readjusting the traction, administering PRN medication, or waiting to reassess the foot in fifteen minutes are not appropriate actions when a child is experiencing compromised circulation.
2. A client is diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). Which action is a priority nursing intervention?
- A. Monitor for renal failure.
- B. Monitor psychosocial status.
- C. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
- D. Have heparin sodium available.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client receiving tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase) for an acute myocardial infarction is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Alteplase is a thrombolytic medication that can lead to hemorrhage as a complication. Therefore, closely monitoring the client for any signs of bleeding is essential to promptly address and manage this potential adverse effect.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?
- A. Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute.
- B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute.
- C. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute.
- D. Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute. Bradycardia is a critical assessment finding in a client prescribed with digoxin, as it can indicate digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia is a known side effect of digoxin, and if left unaddressed, it can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or cardiac arrest. Both choices B, heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and C, respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, fall within normal ranges and do not raise immediate concerns. Choice D, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, is also within normal limits and does not indicate digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should report bradycardia promptly to prevent further complications.
4. A client who has active tuberculosis (TB) is admitted to the medical unit. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Wear a gown and gloves.
- B. Have the client wear a mask.
- C. Perform hand hygiene.
- D. Assign the client to a negative air-flow room.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to assign the client to a negative air-flow room (Choice D). Active tuberculosis requires implementation of airborne precautions, including isolating the client in a negative pressure air-flow room to prevent the spread of the infection to others. Choice A (Wear a gown and gloves) is important for standard precautions but does not address the specific airborne precautions needed for tuberculosis. Choice B (Have the client wear a mask) may help reduce the spread of respiratory droplets but does not provide adequate protection for healthcare workers or other patients. Choice C (Perform hand hygiene) is essential for infection control but is not the most critical action when dealing with an airborne infection like tuberculosis.
5. A client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF) has a 24-hour urine output of 400 ml. How much oral intake should the nurse allow this client to have during the next 24 hours?
- A. Encourage oral fluids as tolerated
- B. Decrease oral intake to 200 ml
- C. Allow the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake
- D. Limit oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), the goal is to prevent fluid overload. Since the client has a low urine output of 400 ml in 24 hours, limiting oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml is appropriate. Encouraging unrestricted oral fluids (Choice A) can exacerbate fluid overload. Decreasing oral intake to 200 ml (Choice B) would be too restrictive and may lead to dehydration. Allowing the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake (Choice C) would not account for other sources of fluid intake and output, potentially resulting in fluid imbalance.