Nursing Elites

1. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) reports frequent heartburn. What dietary modification should the nurse recommend?

• A. Avoid eating large meals late at night.
• B. Eat a high-fat diet to buffer stomach acid.
• C. Reduce fluid intake to prevent acid reflux.
• D. Consume spicy foods to neutralize stomach acid.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend avoiding eating large meals late at night. This dietary modification can help reduce the risk of acid reflux, which can exacerbate GERD symptoms. Consuming smaller, more frequent meals is generally recommended to minimize pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice B is incorrect because a high-fat diet can worsen GERD symptoms by delaying stomach emptying. Choice C is incorrect because reducing fluid intake can lead to dehydration and will not prevent acid reflux. Choice D is incorrect because spicy foods can actually trigger or worsen acid reflux symptoms in individuals with GERD.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus reports tingling in their feet. What is the nurse's best intervention?

• A. Advise the client to avoid wearing tight shoes.
• B. Refer the client to a podiatrist for foot care.
• C. Teach the client about blood sugar control and foot care.
• D. Administer insulin as prescribed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing tingling in their feet is to teach the client about blood sugar control and foot care. This is essential because tingling in the feet can be a sign of neuropathy, a common complication of diabetes. Educating the client on maintaining proper blood sugar levels and foot care practices can help manage neuropathy symptoms and prevent complications like ulcers or infections. Advising the client to avoid tight shoes (Choice A) may help with comfort but does not address the underlying issue. Referring the client to a podiatrist (Choice B) is important for foot care but does not directly address blood sugar control. Administering insulin (Choice D) is not the priority for managing tingling in the feet related to neuropathy.

3. The healthcare provider is performing a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted. Which finding would call for immediate action by the healthcare provider?

• A. Breath sounds are audible bilaterally
• B. Mist is visible in the T-piece
• C. Pulse oximetry of 88
• D. Client is unable to verbalize

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88 indicates hypoxia, which is a serious condition requiring immediate intervention. Adequate oxygenation is crucial for the client's well-being. Choices A and B are normal findings after endotracheal intubation. Hearing bilateral breath sounds and seeing mist in the T-piece indicate proper functioning of the endotracheal tube. While choice D may indicate an issue with speaking due to the endotracheal tube, it is not as critical as the hypoxia indicated by the low pulse oximetry reading.

4. A client with lung cancer is admitted to palliative care. What is the nurse's priority assessment?

• A. Monitor respiratory status and oxygenation.
• B. Evaluate the client's mental status and cognition.
• C. Check the client’s pain level and provide comfort.
• D. Assess the client’s nutritional status and appetite.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring respiratory status and oxygenation is crucial in clients with lung cancer, as metastasis to the lungs or pleural effusion can compromise breathing. This assessment helps in early identification of respiratory distress and the need for interventions to maintain adequate oxygenation. Choice B is important but not the priority in this situation. Evaluating mental status and cognition should follow after ensuring the client's physiological needs are met. Choice C, checking pain level and providing comfort, is essential but secondary to assessing respiratory status. Choice D, assessing nutritional status and appetite, is also important but not the priority when the client's breathing is at risk.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant, IM, every 8 hours. The vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mg/ml after reconstitution. How many ml should the nurse administer?

• A. 3 ml.
• B. 0.4 ml.
• C. 1.2 ml.
• D. 0.9 ml.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 35 mg of celtazidime from a 100 mg/ml solution, the nurse should give 0.4 ml of the reconstituted celtazidime solution. The calculation is 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml, but since the vial is 500 mg, the answer is 0.35 ml * (500 mg / 100 mg) = 0.4 ml. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

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