HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) reports frequent heartburn. What dietary modification should the nurse recommend?
- A. Avoid eating large meals late at night.
- B. Eat a high-fat diet to buffer stomach acid.
- C. Reduce fluid intake to prevent acid reflux.
- D. Consume spicy foods to neutralize stomach acid.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend avoiding eating large meals late at night. This dietary modification can help reduce the risk of acid reflux, which can exacerbate GERD symptoms. Consuming smaller, more frequent meals is generally recommended to minimize pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice B is incorrect because a high-fat diet can worsen GERD symptoms by delaying stomach emptying. Choice C is incorrect because reducing fluid intake can lead to dehydration and will not prevent acid reflux. Choice D is incorrect because spicy foods can actually trigger or worsen acid reflux symptoms in individuals with GERD.
2. A client presents with a suspected infection and has a fever of 102°F. What is the nurse's immediate priority?
- A. Administer antipyretics as ordered
- B. Take a blood culture before administering antibiotics
- C. Encourage fluid intake to prevent dehydration
- D. Monitor vital signs every hour
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The immediate priority for a client with a suspected infection and fever is to take a blood culture before administering antibiotics. This step is crucial to identify the causative organism and ensure appropriate treatment. Administering antipyretics or encouraging fluid intake are important but should come after obtaining the blood culture to avoid interfering with test results. Monitoring vital signs, although essential, is not the immediate priority compared to identifying the infectious agent.
3. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Auscultate lung sounds.
- D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.
4. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is receiving an insulin infusion. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
- A. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L.
- B. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL.
- C. Urine output of 50 mL/hour.
- D. Absence of ketones in the urine.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Absence of ketones in the urine. In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) receiving an insulin infusion, the absence of ketones in the urine indicates that ketoacidosis is resolving. This is a crucial finding as it shows that the insulin therapy is effectively addressing the metabolic imbalance causing DKA. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within normal range but does not directly reflect the resolution of DKA; a blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL, while improved, is still high and does not specifically indicate the resolution of ketoacidosis; urine output of 50 mL/hour is within normal limits but does not directly point to the resolution of DKA.
5. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, that the outer part of her eyebrows has disappeared, and that her eyes are puffy. What follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?
- A. Have you noticed any changes in your fingernails?
- B. Have you had any changes in weight or energy levels?
- C. Do you have a family history of thyroid problems?
- D. Have you had recent cold intolerance or unusual fatigue?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cold intolerance, fatigue, and other changes may indicate hypothyroidism, which could explain the hair and eyebrow loss, and puffy eyes. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the symptoms presented by the client.
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