HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) reports frequent heartburn. What dietary modification should the nurse recommend?
- A. Avoid eating large meals late at night.
- B. Eat a high-fat diet to buffer stomach acid.
- C. Reduce fluid intake to prevent acid reflux.
- D. Consume spicy foods to neutralize stomach acid.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend avoiding eating large meals late at night. This dietary modification can help reduce the risk of acid reflux, which can exacerbate GERD symptoms. Consuming smaller, more frequent meals is generally recommended to minimize pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice B is incorrect because a high-fat diet can worsen GERD symptoms by delaying stomach emptying. Choice C is incorrect because reducing fluid intake can lead to dehydration and will not prevent acid reflux. Choice D is incorrect because spicy foods can actually trigger or worsen acid reflux symptoms in individuals with GERD.
2. The psychiatric nurse is caring for clients in an adolescent unit. Which client requires the nurse's immediate attention?
- A. A 17-year-old client with schizophrenia who is pacing the hallways
- B. An 18-year-old client with antisocial behavior who is being yelled at by other clients
- C. A 16-year-old client with depression who refuses to eat meals
- D. A 15-year-old client with anxiety who is quietly reading in a corner
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client with antisocial behavior being yelled at by peers may escalate the situation, potentially leading to violence or self-harm. Addressing the situation quickly helps prevent harm and de-escalates the conflict. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate risks that require urgent intervention compared to the potential danger of a conflict escalating to violence with the client exhibiting antisocial behavior.
3. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and reports feeling chilled and short of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Administer an antihistamine as prescribed.
- C. Administer a dose of acetaminophen.
- D. Administer a PRN dose of diphenhydramine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client receiving a blood transfusion reports feeling chilled and short of breath is to stop the transfusion immediately and notify the healthcare provider. These symptoms could indicate a transfusion reaction, which can be serious and even life-threatening. Stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further adverse reactions, and notifying the healthcare provider ensures timely intervention and appropriate management. Administering antihistamines, acetaminophen, or diphenhydramine is not the priority in this situation and may delay necessary actions to address the potential transfusion reaction.
4. A client with Type 2 diabetes is admitted with frequent hyperglycemic episodes and glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) of 10%. What actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Mixing glargine with aspart insulin to manage glucose levels.
- B. Teaching foot care to prevent injuries.
- C. Coordinating carbohydrate-controlled meals and subcutaneous injections.
- D. Reviewing site rotation for insulin injections.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In managing a client with Type 2 diabetes experiencing frequent hyperglycemic episodes and with a high A1C level, it is crucial to coordinate carbohydrate-controlled meals and subcutaneous injections. This approach helps regulate blood glucose levels effectively. Mixing glargine with aspart insulin (Choice A) is not a recommended practice as these insulins have different onset and peak times. Teaching foot care (Choice B) is important in diabetes management but is not the priority in this scenario. Reviewing site rotation for insulin injections (Choice D) is important to prevent lipodystrophy but is not the immediate action needed to address the client's hyperglycemia and high A1C level.
5. An adult male is brought to the ER after a motorcycle accident with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which finding requires immediate attention?
- A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
- B. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.
- C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
- D. Projectile vomiting.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears suggest a severe head injury. Projectile vomiting is a red flag symptom that may indicate increased intracranial pressure, which requires immediate attention to prevent further neurological deterioration. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) typically indicates peritonitis and is not directly related to the primary head injury. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally (choice B) suggest a pneumothorax or hemothorax, which are important but not as immediately life-threatening in this context. Rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) is concerning for rib fractures or pulmonary contusion, which are also important but do not take precedence over addressing the potential increased intracranial pressure.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access