Nursing Elites

1. Which client is at greatest risk for developing delirium?

• A. An adult client who cannot sleep due to pain.
• B. An older client who attempted suicide 1 month ago.
• C. A young adult taking antipsychotic medications twice daily.
• D. A middle-aged woman using supplemental oxygen.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Older adults who have attempted suicide are at higher risk for developing delirium, especially in the context of underlying mental health conditions. Choice A is incorrect as sleep disturbances due to pain may lead to discomfort but not necessarily delirium. Choice C is incorrect as taking antipsychotic medications, if managed well, does not inherently increase the risk of delirium. Choice D is incorrect as using supplemental oxygen alone does not significantly increase the risk of developing delirium.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
• C. Assess the client for signs of infection.
• D. Monitor the client for signs of bleeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit.' When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin, the nurse's priority action is to monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring these lab values helps evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin in treating anemia. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (choice B) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Assessing the client for signs of infection (choice C) is important but not the priority related to the prescription of erythropoietin. Monitoring the client for signs of bleeding (choice D) is relevant but not the priority action when erythropoietin is prescribed.

3. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia and prescribed penicillin G potassium. Which factor increases the risk of an adverse reaction?

• A. Sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae.
• B. Previous treatment with penicillin.
• C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension.
• D. Documented allergy to sulfa drugs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and interact with penicillin, leading to adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because the sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae is an expected finding in a patient with pneumonia and does not increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as previous treatment with penicillin does not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin if there was no history of allergic reactions. Choice D is also incorrect as a documented allergy to sulfa drugs does not directly increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin.

4. Following discharge teaching, a male client with a duodenal ulcer tells the nurse that he will drink plenty of dairy products, such as milk, to help coat and protect his ulcer. What is the best follow-up action by the nurse?

• A. Encourage the client to drink milk
• B. Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream
• C. Instruct the client to take antacids instead
• D. Advise the client to monitor their symptoms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client should be advised to avoid foods rich in milk and cream. Although they provide temporary relief, dairy products, especially milk, stimulate gastric acid secretion, which can exacerbate the symptoms of a duodenal ulcer. Encouraging the client to drink milk (Choice A) would be counterproductive and could worsen the condition. Instructing the client to take antacids (Choice C) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause of the issue. Advising the client to monitor their symptoms (Choice D) is vague and does not provide specific guidance on managing the duodenal ulcer. Therefore, the best action is to review with the client the need to avoid foods rich in milk and cream to ensure proper ulcer management.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the medication immediately
• B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
• C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
• D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.

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