HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. Which client is at greatest risk for developing delirium?
- A. An adult client who cannot sleep due to pain.
- B. An older client who attempted suicide 1 month ago.
- C. A young adult taking antipsychotic medications twice daily.
- D. A middle-aged woman using supplemental oxygen.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Older adults who have attempted suicide are at higher risk for developing delirium, especially in the context of underlying mental health conditions. Choice A is incorrect as sleep disturbances due to pain may lead to discomfort but not necessarily delirium. Choice C is incorrect as taking antipsychotic medications, if managed well, does not inherently increase the risk of delirium. Choice D is incorrect as using supplemental oxygen alone does not significantly increase the risk of developing delirium.
2. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted to the emergency room with abdominal pain, polyuria, and confusion. What should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer intravenous insulin.
- B. Start an intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Obtain a blood glucose level.
- D. Administer an antiemetic.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first start an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention is crucial in addressing severe dehydration associated with diabetic ketoacidosis, a life-threatening complication of type 1 diabetes. Administering intravenous insulin (Choice A) is important but should follow fluid resuscitation. Obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice C) is necessary but not as urgent as addressing the dehydration. Administering an antiemetic (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation.
3. A client with pneumonia is receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?
- A. Client's respiratory rate decreases from 24 to 20 breaths per minute
- B. White blood cell count decreases to normal range
- C. Client reports increased energy levels
- D. Cough becomes productive with green sputum
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment and the client's condition is improving. Monitoring the white blood cell count is a more objective indicator of the body's response to the antibiotics. Choices A, C, and D may also be positive signs, but they are less specific and may vary among individuals. Respiratory rate alone may not be sufficient to indicate improvement, as other factors can influence it. Energy levels and cough characteristics are subjective and may not always correlate with the effectiveness of antibiotic treatment.
4. The nurse is caring for a 24-month-old toddler who has sensory sensitivity, difficulty engaging in social interactions, and has not yet spoken two-word phrases. Which assessment should the nurse administer?
- A. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test
- B. The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT)
- C. Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence
- D. Denver Developmental Screening Test
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT) is specifically designed to screen for autism spectrum disorders in young children. It is appropriate for this child, given the signs of social and communication delays. The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (Choice A) assesses receptive vocabulary and may not capture the social and communication aspects seen in autism. The Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (Choice C) measures cognitive ability and may not address the social and communication delays. The Denver Developmental Screening Test (Choice D) is a broad developmental assessment tool, but the M-CHAT is more specific to screening for autism in this case.
5. A client with Addison's disease becomes confused and weak. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer a dose of hydrocortisone immediately.
- B. Check the client’s electrolyte levels.
- C. Administer a dose of normal saline.
- D. Measure the client’s blood pressure in both arms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a dose of hydrocortisone immediately. In Addison's disease, confusion and weakness can be signs of an adrenal crisis. Administering hydrocortisone promptly is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Checking electrolyte levels (Choice B) is important but not the first action in managing an acute adrenal crisis. Administering normal saline (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation. Measuring blood pressure in both arms (Choice D) is not the initial action needed to address the client's confusion and weakness in Addison's disease.
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