which client is at greatest risk for developing delirium
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. Which client is at greatest risk for developing delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Older adults who have attempted suicide are at higher risk for developing delirium, especially in the context of underlying mental health conditions. Choice A is incorrect as sleep disturbances due to pain may lead to discomfort but not necessarily delirium. Choice C is incorrect as taking antipsychotic medications, if managed well, does not inherently increase the risk of delirium. Choice D is incorrect as using supplemental oxygen alone does not significantly increase the risk of developing delirium.

2. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed anticoagulants. What should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with DVT, assessing for pulmonary embolism is crucial as a clot in the lungs can be life-threatening. Sudden shortness of breath or chest pain are key signs of a pulmonary embolism. While monitoring for signs of bleeding is important due to anticoagulant therapy, the immediate concern is detecting a potential pulmonary embolism. Monitoring vital signs and pain in the affected limb are relevant aspects of care but are not as urgent as assessing for pulmonary embolism in this scenario.

3. While assessing a client who is admitted with heart failure and pulmonary edema, the nurse identifies dependent peripheral edema, an irregular heart rate, and a persistent cough that produces pink blood-tinged sputum. After initiating continuous telemetry and positioning the client, which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's cough producing pink, frothy sputum is indicative of pulmonary edema, which needs immediate treatment. Obtaining a sputum sample helps identify any infection that may be contributing to the pulmonary issues. Administering diuretics is essential in managing pulmonary edema but obtaining a sputum sample should take priority. Intubation may be necessary in severe cases but is not the initial intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to diagnose and treat the condition is crucial.

4. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

5. The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instruction should the nurse provide the UAP who is working with the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring vital signs throughout a transfusion is critical, as reactions can occur later in the process. The UAP should continue to check vital signs regularly to ensure that any delayed reaction is promptly detected. Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake (Choice A) is not necessary at this point, as the focus should be on monitoring. Documenting the absence of a reaction (Choice B) is important but not as crucial as ongoing vital sign monitoring. Notifying the nurse if the client develops a fever (Choice C) is relevant but should not be the UAP's primary responsibility during the transfusion.

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