Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who is experiencing fluid volume deficit (dehydration). Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy?

• A. Monitor daily weights
• B. Assess skin turgor
• C. Evaluate blood pressure trends
• D. Check urine specific gravity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring daily weights is an accurate method to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy because changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance. Fluid volume deficit can be objectively evaluated by monitoring daily weights as it provides a more precise measurement of fluid status over time. Assessing skin turgor (choice B) is subjective and may not provide as accurate or measurable data as monitoring daily weights. Evaluating blood pressure trends (choice C) can give information about circulatory status but may not directly reflect fluid volume status. Checking urine specific gravity (choice D) can indicate the concentration of urine but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of overall fluid balance like monitoring daily weights does.

2. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide to a 65-year-old client who attends an adult daycare program, is wheelchair-mobile, and has redness in the sacral area?

• A. Take a vitamin supplement tablet once a day.
• B. Change positions in the chair at least every hour.
• C. Increase daily intake of water or other oral fluids.
• D. Purchase a newer model wheelchair.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client with redness in the sacral area, the most critical instruction is to change positions in the chair at least every hour. This is crucial to prevent pressure ulcers, which can develop due to prolonged pressure on the skin and underlying tissues. Regular position changes help relieve pressure on vulnerable areas, promoting circulation and reducing the risk of skin breakdown and pressure ulcer formation.

3. What instruction should be provided for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA who has an order for contact precautions?

• A. Do not allow visitors until precautions are discontinued
• B. Wear sterile gloves when handling the client’s body fluids
• C. Have the client wear a mask whenever someone enters the room
• D. Don a gown and gloves when entering the room

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA under contact precautions is to don a gown and gloves when entering the client's room. This precaution is essential to prevent the spread of MRSA and protect both the client and the healthcare worker from potential infection. Choice A is incorrect because visitors should not be restricted solely based on contact precautions. Choice B is incorrect as wearing sterile gloves is not necessary, standard precautions with regular gloves are sufficient. Choice C is incorrect because the client wearing a mask is not a standard practice for contact precautions; it is the healthcare worker who should take preventive measures.

4. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

5. The nurse determines that a postoperative client's respiratory rate has increased from 18 to 24 breaths/min. Based on this assessment finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to increase ambulation in the room.
• B. Offer the client a high-carbohydrate snack for energy.
• C. Force fluids to thin the client's pulmonary secretions.
• D. Determine if pain is causing the client's tachypnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An increased respiratory rate can be a sign of various issues postoperatively, including pain. Assessing and managing pain is crucial as it can lead to tachypnea. Pain, anxiety, and fluid accumulation in the lungs can all contribute to an increased respiratory rate. Therefore, determining if pain is causing the tachypnea is the most important intervention to address the underlying cause. Encouraging ambulation, offering snacks, or forcing fluids are not the priority in this situation as pain assessment takes precedence in managing the increased respiratory rate.

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